45. radiographic feature in gingivitis- normal bone
46. 8mm pocket- pseudo pocket
47. root # in the apical third of permanent teeth usually ------- vital n functional
48. trauma from occlusion least likely to affect------- epithelial attachment
49. adenoid odontogenic tumor called as-------- adenoameloblastoma
50. radicular cyst always asso. with.---------- non vital tooth
51. abrasion most common on--------------- maxillary arch left side
52. nitrous oxide nt used alone in GA------------- difficulty to maintain adequate O2 con.
53. floating tooth----cherubism
54. loading dose dependant on---vol of distribution
55. mode
56. koch's postulate
57. modification of koch's postulate
58. difference between etchant and gel
59. bone grafting done before canine extraction or after in cleft case
60. use of paired t test or unpaired in two groups
61. a tooth in which rct was started 2 yrs back , radiolucency does not resolve reason , curretage done
62. periapical radoioopacities around molar
63. patient on steriod therapy , whay would u give
64. in # mand part behind # line acts as
65. material which has high tensile strength but low compressive strength called
66. a girl using teething gel _ acrodynia?
67. mixture of 2.5% + 2.5% used in
68. gasserian block
69. mand block
70. eutectic mixture used in anesthesia of intact skin
71. injury which does not extend to dermis.... contusion
72. bilat. canine area fracture in md. is pushed backwards by action of muscles, ant belly digastric genioglossus geniohyoid
73. nt effective against MRSA clotrimaxazole
74. in penicillin allergic pt penicillin nd erythromycin nt given together why, erythromycin reduce d action of penicillin
75. tt. 4 a pt having badly carious left LI wid inability of opening left eye ,fluctuant swelling on
76. left side of face, fever.... incision and drainage
77. sorting of pt.of trauma on basis of need of care nd availability of resources....triage
78. prevention of long term widrawl effects of morphine
79. gingivoplasty nt req in all except ........ acute necrotising ulcerative gingivitis
80. organism absent in pdl diseases?????
81. semipermeable sulcular epi. leads 2 .... both of the above
82. multiple radiolucencies in 30 yr old lady due 2..?
83. GA cause rapid recovery wid max consciousness.?
84. muscle not originated from oblique line of thyroid....sup constrictor
85. t lymphocytes primarily do...produce lymphokine and .....
86. T2N0M0 signify stage 2 .
Saturday, December 5, 2009
AIIMS 2008 NOV MDS
1. radioluceny at the apex of a vital tooth
2. radio opacity periapical
3. dentin conditioners
4. acid etch causes
5. 8 year old child with green stains
6. shape of access opening of mand moar with 4 canals
7. not a periodontal pathogen
8. most common developmental maxillary cyst
9. which is benzodiazepne antagonist
10. fluride from GIC reacts wid?
11. bleeding patient in emergency,
12. tongue control lost, maanagement?
13. mandibular fracture tension/ compression / rotation/ torsion?
14. DIFOTI use
15. gel used for etching not liquid y?
16. irregulr dentin ,interglobular dentin
17. etchant protected 4m entering pulp
18. radiopacity below3 month old amalgam restr.
19. .semipermeable sulcular epi. leads 2
20. multiple radiolucencies in 30 yr old lady due 2
21. floating teeth seen in
22. etching leads 2 reduction in
23. eutectic mixture used in
24. postoperative effect is minimum wid
25. oral pigmentation seen in
26. gingivoplasty nt req in all except
27. plaque contains
28. bilat. canine area fracture in md. is pushed backwards by action of muscles
29. nt effective against MRSA
30. in penicillin allergic pt penicillin nd erythromycin nt given together why
31. tt. 4 a pt having badly carious left LI wid inability of opening left eye ,fluctuant swelling on left side of face, fever
32. sorting of pt.of trauma on basis of need of care nd availability of resources
33. prevention of long term widrawl effects of morphine is prevented by
34. which GA cause rapid recovery wid max consciousness
35. muscle not originated from oblique line of thyroid
36. t lymphocytes primarily do
37. T2N0M0 signify stage 2
38. plaque contain-bacteria & food products,
39. infectious mononucleosis- ebv
40. suger found-sucrose
41. oral pigmentation-addison disease
42. avulsed tooth-wash with saline
43. painful socket- irrigation & medicated gauge
44. hair on end appearance-thallesemia
2. radio opacity periapical
3. dentin conditioners
4. acid etch causes
5. 8 year old child with green stains
6. shape of access opening of mand moar with 4 canals
7. not a periodontal pathogen
8. most common developmental maxillary cyst
9. which is benzodiazepne antagonist
10. fluride from GIC reacts wid?
11. bleeding patient in emergency,
12. tongue control lost, maanagement?
13. mandibular fracture tension/ compression / rotation/ torsion?
14. DIFOTI use
15. gel used for etching not liquid y?
16. irregulr dentin ,interglobular dentin
17. etchant protected 4m entering pulp
18. radiopacity below3 month old amalgam restr.
19. .semipermeable sulcular epi. leads 2
20. multiple radiolucencies in 30 yr old lady due 2
21. floating teeth seen in
22. etching leads 2 reduction in
23. eutectic mixture used in
24. postoperative effect is minimum wid
25. oral pigmentation seen in
26. gingivoplasty nt req in all except
27. plaque contains
28. bilat. canine area fracture in md. is pushed backwards by action of muscles
29. nt effective against MRSA
30. in penicillin allergic pt penicillin nd erythromycin nt given together why
31. tt. 4 a pt having badly carious left LI wid inability of opening left eye ,fluctuant swelling on left side of face, fever
32. sorting of pt.of trauma on basis of need of care nd availability of resources
33. prevention of long term widrawl effects of morphine is prevented by
34. which GA cause rapid recovery wid max consciousness
35. muscle not originated from oblique line of thyroid
36. t lymphocytes primarily do
37. T2N0M0 signify stage 2
38. plaque contain-bacteria & food products,
39. infectious mononucleosis- ebv
40. suger found-sucrose
41. oral pigmentation-addison disease
42. avulsed tooth-wash with saline
43. painful socket- irrigation & medicated gauge
44. hair on end appearance-thallesemia
Wednesday, December 2, 2009
AIPGE 09 MDS Prosthodontics
Prosthodontics
208. Methods to reduce backpressure porosity
a) Vacuum investing
b) Increasing length of sprue
c) …
d) …
Ans:
208. Methods to reduce backpressure porosity
a) Vacuum investing
b) Increasing length of sprue
c) …
d) …
Ans:
AIPGE 09 MDS Oral & Maxillofacial Surgery
Oral & Maxillofacial Surgery
187. Lingual splaying will cause increase in
a) Interpupillary distance
b) Intercanthal distance
c) Interangle distance
d) Go – Gn distance
188. A condylar fracture with fragment overlap of >5mm and angle >37 degree needs what treatment?
a) Closed reduction and imf
b) ORIF
c) Soft diet only
d) No treatment
Ans:
189. When a mandibular fracture is transferred to an intensive care unit,under what is mandibular fracture treated
a) Primary survey
b) Secondary survey
c) Primary survey with IMF
d) Resuscitation room
190. When a minimal injury as a glancing blow is struck,to what variable is it related?
a) Position of strike
b) Area of strike
c) Angulation of strike
d) Location of strike
Ans:
191. According to the tension and compression forces acting at the condylar border which of these would best attenuate them?
a) A plate at the anterior border and another at the posterior border
b) A plate at the anterior border
c) A plate at the posterior border
d) A plate at the lateral border
Ans:
192. Treatment of comminuted fracture in angle of mandible
a) Multiple miniplates
b) Compression plates
c) Recontruction plates
d) Single miniplate which gives functional union
Ans: Reconstruction plates
193. Bone which fills in an osseous defect is
a) Spongy
b) Cancellous
c) Bundle
d) None
Ans:
194. What is the best treatment for a fractured angle mandible?
a )two plates as acc to AO principles
b)compression plating
c )reconstruction plates
d)
Ans:
195. The failure of IAN block can occur in children due to
a) Concentration of LA
b) Presence of adrenaline
c) Position of needle
d) Angle of ramus
Ans: d) Angle of ramus
196. Which of the following is not done as a investigation in osteosarcoma
a) MRI femur
b) Bone marrow biopsy
c) Bone scan
d) Xray chest
Ans:
197. Alveolar bone grafting in a cleft palate patient is done
a) After maxillary expansion, cross bite correction, before canine eruption
b) Before maxillary expansion cross bite correction after canine eruption
c) After maxillary expansion cross bite correction after canine eruption
d) Before maxillary expansion cross bite correction before canine eruption
Ans: a)After maxillary expansion, cross bite correction, before canine eruption
198. A pt is admitted with head injury, GCS = 8, maxillary fracture, frequent apnea and low oxygenation. Airway management is done by
a) Oropharyngeal airway
b) Orotracheal airway
c) Cricothyroidotomy
d) …
Ans: c) Cricothyroidotomy
199. Excisional biopsy is done by
a) Complete excision of the tumor along with some part of normal tissue
b) Partial excision of the tumor alone
c) Partial excision of the tumor with normal tissue
d) Complete excision of the tumor
Ans: a) Complete excision of the tumor along with some part of normal tissue
200. The bone present on the labial side of lower anteriors is
a) Cortical
b) Cancellous
c) Fibrous
d) Spongy
Ans: a) Cortical
201. The type of bone present between the furcations is
a)cortical
b)cancellous
c)fibrous
d)spongy
Ans: b) Cancellous
202. Champy plates
a) …
b) …
c) …
d) …
Ans:
203. Commonest impaction
a) Mesioangular
b) Distoangular
c) Vertical
d) Horizontal
Ans: Mesioangular
204. Which anesthetic is used intravenously
a) Propofol
b) …
c) …
d) …
Ans:
205. LA does not act in the presence of inflammation as LA solution molecules
a) Are positively charged
b) Are negatively charged
c) Not charged
d) …
Ans:
206. In mass trauma cases treatment priority given to
a) Those with life threatening conditions
b) Those who can be revived with minimum of resources and manpower
c) Those requiring maximum machinery and manpower
d) ….
Ans: b) Those who can be revived with minimum of resources and manpower
207. A patient is suffering from severe facial pain and a nasopharengeal tumor is present on the lateral wall of larynx.The patient is suffering from
a) Plummervinson syndrome
b) Trotters syndrome :ans
c) Reiters syndrome
d) …
Ans:
187. Lingual splaying will cause increase in
a) Interpupillary distance
b) Intercanthal distance
c) Interangle distance
d) Go – Gn distance
188. A condylar fracture with fragment overlap of >5mm and angle >37 degree needs what treatment?
a) Closed reduction and imf
b) ORIF
c) Soft diet only
d) No treatment
Ans:
189. When a mandibular fracture is transferred to an intensive care unit,under what is mandibular fracture treated
a) Primary survey
b) Secondary survey
c) Primary survey with IMF
d) Resuscitation room
190. When a minimal injury as a glancing blow is struck,to what variable is it related?
a) Position of strike
b) Area of strike
c) Angulation of strike
d) Location of strike
Ans:
191. According to the tension and compression forces acting at the condylar border which of these would best attenuate them?
a) A plate at the anterior border and another at the posterior border
b) A plate at the anterior border
c) A plate at the posterior border
d) A plate at the lateral border
Ans:
192. Treatment of comminuted fracture in angle of mandible
a) Multiple miniplates
b) Compression plates
c) Recontruction plates
d) Single miniplate which gives functional union
Ans: Reconstruction plates
193. Bone which fills in an osseous defect is
a) Spongy
b) Cancellous
c) Bundle
d) None
Ans:
194. What is the best treatment for a fractured angle mandible?
a )two plates as acc to AO principles
b)compression plating
c )reconstruction plates
d)
Ans:
195. The failure of IAN block can occur in children due to
a) Concentration of LA
b) Presence of adrenaline
c) Position of needle
d) Angle of ramus
Ans: d) Angle of ramus
196. Which of the following is not done as a investigation in osteosarcoma
a) MRI femur
b) Bone marrow biopsy
c) Bone scan
d) Xray chest
Ans:
197. Alveolar bone grafting in a cleft palate patient is done
a) After maxillary expansion, cross bite correction, before canine eruption
b) Before maxillary expansion cross bite correction after canine eruption
c) After maxillary expansion cross bite correction after canine eruption
d) Before maxillary expansion cross bite correction before canine eruption
Ans: a)After maxillary expansion, cross bite correction, before canine eruption
198. A pt is admitted with head injury, GCS = 8, maxillary fracture, frequent apnea and low oxygenation. Airway management is done by
a) Oropharyngeal airway
b) Orotracheal airway
c) Cricothyroidotomy
d) …
Ans: c) Cricothyroidotomy
199. Excisional biopsy is done by
a) Complete excision of the tumor along with some part of normal tissue
b) Partial excision of the tumor alone
c) Partial excision of the tumor with normal tissue
d) Complete excision of the tumor
Ans: a) Complete excision of the tumor along with some part of normal tissue
200. The bone present on the labial side of lower anteriors is
a) Cortical
b) Cancellous
c) Fibrous
d) Spongy
Ans: a) Cortical
201. The type of bone present between the furcations is
a)cortical
b)cancellous
c)fibrous
d)spongy
Ans: b) Cancellous
202. Champy plates
a) …
b) …
c) …
d) …
Ans:
203. Commonest impaction
a) Mesioangular
b) Distoangular
c) Vertical
d) Horizontal
Ans: Mesioangular
204. Which anesthetic is used intravenously
a) Propofol
b) …
c) …
d) …
Ans:
205. LA does not act in the presence of inflammation as LA solution molecules
a) Are positively charged
b) Are negatively charged
c) Not charged
d) …
Ans:
206. In mass trauma cases treatment priority given to
a) Those with life threatening conditions
b) Those who can be revived with minimum of resources and manpower
c) Those requiring maximum machinery and manpower
d) ….
Ans: b) Those who can be revived with minimum of resources and manpower
207. A patient is suffering from severe facial pain and a nasopharengeal tumor is present on the lateral wall of larynx.The patient is suffering from
a) Plummervinson syndrome
b) Trotters syndrome :ans
c) Reiters syndrome
d) …
Ans:
AIPGE 09 MDS Radiology
Radiology
177. When a child is not able 2 hold the IOPA film,who should hold it?
a) Dentist
b) Parent
c) Assisstant
d) Radiographer
Ans: b) Parent
178. Bisecting angle technique uses
a) Rule of Isometry
b) ALARA
c) SLOB
d) …
Ans: a) Rule of Isometry
179. Trapnell lines and McG.... lines are used in
a) True lateral
b) PA mandible
c) PNS view
d) …
Ans:
180. In a radiograph, the buccal root of max 1st premolar appears to be distal to the lingual root.The angulation of the cone was
a) Mesial to the premolar
b) Distal to the premolar
c) 10 degrees from above in a vertical angulation
d) 10 degrees from below in a vertical angulation
Ans: a) Mesial to the premolar
181.On the radiograph,the mesial aspect of a mandibular 1st molar, 2-3 mm bone loss is found.On probing, 6mm pocket is present.The difference is due to
a) Wrong angulation of radiograph
b) Facial and lingual bone superimposition
c) Mesial and buccal bone superimposition
d) Mesial and lingual bone superimposition
Ans:
182.On a radiograph, irregularities are found on the root area of lower incisors.It may be
a) Subgingival calculus
b) Root caries
c) …
d) …
Ans: a)Subgingival calculus
183. Best for detecting posterior proximal caries in children with minimum radiatn exposure is
a) bitewing with paralleling technique
b) bitewing with bisecting angle technique
c) bitewing with rvg
d) …
Ans:
184. Which of the following is identified only by radiographs?
a) Mental foramen
b) Apical cyst
c) PA granuloma
d) Chronic periodontitis
Ans: a) Mental foramen
185. Radiopacity at apex of a carious molar
a) Periapical granuloma
b) Condensing osteitis
c) Periapical cyst
d) …
Ans: Condensing osteitis
186. Radiographic appearance of periapical abscess in a primary molar as radiolucency
a) In the inter radicular area
b) Periapical area
c) Lateral to root
d) …
Ans: a) In the interradicular area
177. When a child is not able 2 hold the IOPA film,who should hold it?
a) Dentist
b) Parent
c) Assisstant
d) Radiographer
Ans: b) Parent
178. Bisecting angle technique uses
a) Rule of Isometry
b) ALARA
c) SLOB
d) …
Ans: a) Rule of Isometry
179. Trapnell lines and McG.... lines are used in
a) True lateral
b) PA mandible
c) PNS view
d) …
Ans:
180. In a radiograph, the buccal root of max 1st premolar appears to be distal to the lingual root.The angulation of the cone was
a) Mesial to the premolar
b) Distal to the premolar
c) 10 degrees from above in a vertical angulation
d) 10 degrees from below in a vertical angulation
Ans: a) Mesial to the premolar
181.On the radiograph,the mesial aspect of a mandibular 1st molar, 2-3 mm bone loss is found.On probing, 6mm pocket is present.The difference is due to
a) Wrong angulation of radiograph
b) Facial and lingual bone superimposition
c) Mesial and buccal bone superimposition
d) Mesial and lingual bone superimposition
Ans:
182.On a radiograph, irregularities are found on the root area of lower incisors.It may be
a) Subgingival calculus
b) Root caries
c) …
d) …
Ans: a)Subgingival calculus
183. Best for detecting posterior proximal caries in children with minimum radiatn exposure is
a) bitewing with paralleling technique
b) bitewing with bisecting angle technique
c) bitewing with rvg
d) …
Ans:
184. Which of the following is identified only by radiographs?
a) Mental foramen
b) Apical cyst
c) PA granuloma
d) Chronic periodontitis
Ans: a) Mental foramen
185. Radiopacity at apex of a carious molar
a) Periapical granuloma
b) Condensing osteitis
c) Periapical cyst
d) …
Ans: Condensing osteitis
186. Radiographic appearance of periapical abscess in a primary molar as radiolucency
a) In the inter radicular area
b) Periapical area
c) Lateral to root
d) …
Ans: a) In the interradicular area
AIPGE 09 MDS Conservative Dentistry
Conservative Dentistry
150.Difference in tooth preparion for non carious Class V amalgam and composites
a) Depth of the cavity
b) Mesial and distal walls of the cavity
c) Placement of retentive grooves
d) Cavosurface margins
Ans: d) Cavosurface margins
151. To increase the efficiency of tungsten carbide bur
a) Should run only after touching the tooth
b) Run at high speed before touching the tooth
c) Run at low speed before touching the tooth
d) Run before entering the oral cavity
Ans: c) Run at low speed before touching the tooth
152. A mand.molar is restored with a gold inlay. Severe shooting pain is experienced when teeth come in contact. The cause is
a) Supraocclusion
b) Allergic reaction
c) Excess cement
d) Galvanism due to opposite amalgam restoration
Ans: d)Galvanism due to opposite amalgam restoration
153. Most imp bevel for gold inlay restoration is
a) Occlusal
b) Gingival
c) Axiopuplal
d) Axiofacial
Ans:
154. When pins are used in amalgam, strength of amalgam
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Same
d) ….
Ans: b)Decreases
155. Action of primer
a) Removal of smear layer
b) Increases surface free energy of dentin
c) Forms thin layer between collagen and resin
d) Bonds with composite
Ans:
156. Which is a wrong technique of placement of rubberdam
a) Place the clamp on tooth and insert the rubber dam
b) Place the dam over the clamp and then on tooth
c) Place the dam over the clamp and frame outside the oral cavity and then on tooth using a holder under the dam
d) Put holder over the dam
Ans:
157. Which is most difficult to diagnose
a) Necrosed pulp
b) Internal resorption
c) Chronic pulpitis
d) Acute apical abscess
Ans:
158. tev dek sutures used in endodontic microsurgery are removed in
a) 24-72 hrs
b) 72-96 hrs
c) 7 days
d)10 days
Ans:
159. Irreversible colonization of bacteria occurs in hw much time after enamel is exposed to bacteria?
a) 24 hrs
b) 1-2 hrs
c) 3-4 hrs
d) Immediately
Ans:
160. What lines become prominent after carious process?
a) Hunter schreger bands
b) Incremental lines of retzius
c) Incremental lines of pickerill
d) Incremental lines of von ebner
Ans: Incremental lines of retzius
161. Which is the best material for treatment of non-carious Class V cavities in unstable acid erosion cases?
a) GIC
b) RM-GIC
c) Compomer
d) Composite
Ans: d) Composite
162. Polymerization shrinkage of composite causes compression stress of
a) 1 mpa
b) 15 mpa
c) 5 mpa
d) 30 mpa
Ans:
163. In a tooth with gingival recession undergoing RCT, the gp cone is sealed at
a) Level of anatomic crown junction
b) 1 mm below gingival crest
c) 1mm below the opening of the canal
d) 1mm above the opening of the canal
Ans:
164. While applying temporary restoration to a tooth during a procedure, the thickness of temporary should be
a) 1mm
b) 2mm
c) 3mm
d) 4mm
Ans:
165. During application of rubber dam, following can be used as a lubricant except
a) Vaseline
b) Soapy water
c) Shaving cream
d) …
Ans: a) Vaselin
166. Root surface caries is caused by
a) Lactobacillus
b) Streptococcus viridans
c) Actinimyces
d) Streptococcus mutans
Ans: c) Actinomyces
167. Root surface caries is caused by(repeated)
a) Lactobacillus
b) Streptococcus viridans
c) Actinimyces
d) Streptococcus mutans
Ans: c) Actinomyces
168. On preparing the root canal with a protaper F2 file, 1mm of the GP cone is cut so as to fit the canal with friction.The diameter of the apical preparation is
a) 0.29mm
b) 0.30mm
c) 0.31mm
d) 0.33mm
Ans:
169. Before restoring a tooth with composite, the area is etched. Accidental contamination occurs with saliva.Then
a) The area is reetched before restoration
b) The area is air dried using an air spray and continue with restoring
c) Wipe the saliva with cotton and continue to restore
d) The area washed with waterspray airdried and reetched
Ans: d)The area washed with waterspray airdried and retched
170. Restorative material of choice for classV abfraction in anterior tooth
a) Microfilled composite
b) GIC
c) RMGIC
d) Compomer
Ans: a) Microfilled composite
171. Proximal caries in a tooth starts
a) Above the contact point
b) Gingival to the contact point and gingiva
c) Gingival to the contact point and occusal to the gingival crest
d) At the contact point
Ans: c) Gingival to the contact point and occusal to the gingival crest
172. On radiographic examination of a deep carious tooth,pulp appears to be nearly exposed.what would be the line of treatment
a)consider the tooth to be exposed and carry out RCT
b)place a sedative dressing and restore with amalgam
c)place a sedative dressing and plan for a pulpotomy procedure in the next appointment
d) ….
Ans: c)place a sedative dressing and plan for a pulpotomy procedure in the next appointment
173. The thickness of kalzynol when its used as a temporary restoration in a rootcanal treated tooth
a) 1mm
b) 2mm
c) 3mm
d) 4mm
Ans:
174. In the slide preparation of a normal tooth,the radiolucent area occupied by
a) Normal pulp
b) Internal resorption
c) Inflammed pulp
d) Necrosed pulp
Ans: a) Normal pulp
175. Application frequency of APF in a caries prone child
a) Twice a year
b) Four times a year
c) Once a year
d) …
Ans: a) Twice a year
176. A porcelain inlay with a facial wall is to be prepared.The cavity walls
a) Should converge facially
b) The depth of the cavity is increased more than that for an amalgam restoration
c) The walls are placed parallel to each other
d) …
Ans:
150.Difference in tooth preparion for non carious Class V amalgam and composites
a) Depth of the cavity
b) Mesial and distal walls of the cavity
c) Placement of retentive grooves
d) Cavosurface margins
Ans: d) Cavosurface margins
151. To increase the efficiency of tungsten carbide bur
a) Should run only after touching the tooth
b) Run at high speed before touching the tooth
c) Run at low speed before touching the tooth
d) Run before entering the oral cavity
Ans: c) Run at low speed before touching the tooth
152. A mand.molar is restored with a gold inlay. Severe shooting pain is experienced when teeth come in contact. The cause is
a) Supraocclusion
b) Allergic reaction
c) Excess cement
d) Galvanism due to opposite amalgam restoration
Ans: d)Galvanism due to opposite amalgam restoration
153. Most imp bevel for gold inlay restoration is
a) Occlusal
b) Gingival
c) Axiopuplal
d) Axiofacial
Ans:
154. When pins are used in amalgam, strength of amalgam
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Same
d) ….
Ans: b)Decreases
155. Action of primer
a) Removal of smear layer
b) Increases surface free energy of dentin
c) Forms thin layer between collagen and resin
d) Bonds with composite
Ans:
156. Which is a wrong technique of placement of rubberdam
a) Place the clamp on tooth and insert the rubber dam
b) Place the dam over the clamp and then on tooth
c) Place the dam over the clamp and frame outside the oral cavity and then on tooth using a holder under the dam
d) Put holder over the dam
Ans:
157. Which is most difficult to diagnose
a) Necrosed pulp
b) Internal resorption
c) Chronic pulpitis
d) Acute apical abscess
Ans:
158. tev dek sutures used in endodontic microsurgery are removed in
a) 24-72 hrs
b) 72-96 hrs
c) 7 days
d)10 days
Ans:
159. Irreversible colonization of bacteria occurs in hw much time after enamel is exposed to bacteria?
a) 24 hrs
b) 1-2 hrs
c) 3-4 hrs
d) Immediately
Ans:
160. What lines become prominent after carious process?
a) Hunter schreger bands
b) Incremental lines of retzius
c) Incremental lines of pickerill
d) Incremental lines of von ebner
Ans: Incremental lines of retzius
161. Which is the best material for treatment of non-carious Class V cavities in unstable acid erosion cases?
a) GIC
b) RM-GIC
c) Compomer
d) Composite
Ans: d) Composite
162. Polymerization shrinkage of composite causes compression stress of
a) 1 mpa
b) 15 mpa
c) 5 mpa
d) 30 mpa
Ans:
163. In a tooth with gingival recession undergoing RCT, the gp cone is sealed at
a) Level of anatomic crown junction
b) 1 mm below gingival crest
c) 1mm below the opening of the canal
d) 1mm above the opening of the canal
Ans:
164. While applying temporary restoration to a tooth during a procedure, the thickness of temporary should be
a) 1mm
b) 2mm
c) 3mm
d) 4mm
Ans:
165. During application of rubber dam, following can be used as a lubricant except
a) Vaseline
b) Soapy water
c) Shaving cream
d) …
Ans: a) Vaselin
166. Root surface caries is caused by
a) Lactobacillus
b) Streptococcus viridans
c) Actinimyces
d) Streptococcus mutans
Ans: c) Actinomyces
167. Root surface caries is caused by(repeated)
a) Lactobacillus
b) Streptococcus viridans
c) Actinimyces
d) Streptococcus mutans
Ans: c) Actinomyces
168. On preparing the root canal with a protaper F2 file, 1mm of the GP cone is cut so as to fit the canal with friction.The diameter of the apical preparation is
a) 0.29mm
b) 0.30mm
c) 0.31mm
d) 0.33mm
Ans:
169. Before restoring a tooth with composite, the area is etched. Accidental contamination occurs with saliva.Then
a) The area is reetched before restoration
b) The area is air dried using an air spray and continue with restoring
c) Wipe the saliva with cotton and continue to restore
d) The area washed with waterspray airdried and reetched
Ans: d)The area washed with waterspray airdried and retched
170. Restorative material of choice for classV abfraction in anterior tooth
a) Microfilled composite
b) GIC
c) RMGIC
d) Compomer
Ans: a) Microfilled composite
171. Proximal caries in a tooth starts
a) Above the contact point
b) Gingival to the contact point and gingiva
c) Gingival to the contact point and occusal to the gingival crest
d) At the contact point
Ans: c) Gingival to the contact point and occusal to the gingival crest
172. On radiographic examination of a deep carious tooth,pulp appears to be nearly exposed.what would be the line of treatment
a)consider the tooth to be exposed and carry out RCT
b)place a sedative dressing and restore with amalgam
c)place a sedative dressing and plan for a pulpotomy procedure in the next appointment
d) ….
Ans: c)place a sedative dressing and plan for a pulpotomy procedure in the next appointment
173. The thickness of kalzynol when its used as a temporary restoration in a rootcanal treated tooth
a) 1mm
b) 2mm
c) 3mm
d) 4mm
Ans:
174. In the slide preparation of a normal tooth,the radiolucent area occupied by
a) Normal pulp
b) Internal resorption
c) Inflammed pulp
d) Necrosed pulp
Ans: a) Normal pulp
175. Application frequency of APF in a caries prone child
a) Twice a year
b) Four times a year
c) Once a year
d) …
Ans: a) Twice a year
176. A porcelain inlay with a facial wall is to be prepared.The cavity walls
a) Should converge facially
b) The depth of the cavity is increased more than that for an amalgam restoration
c) The walls are placed parallel to each other
d) …
Ans:
AIPGE 09 MDS General Surgery
General Surgery
139. A Patient with trauma suffers 15 % blood loss.
a) No treatment
b) Blood and colloidal transfusion
c) Colloidal transfusion only
d) Blood transfusion only
Ans: No treatment
140. In a deep wound, width is more than depth. It is
a) Stab wound
b) Slash
c) Laceration
d) Contaminated
Ans: b) Slash
141. Reactive arthritis is caused by
a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) H influenza
c) N. gonorrhoea
d) E coli
Ans:
142. Acute infection causes
a) Neutropenia
b) Leucopenia
c) Leucocytosis
d) …
Ans:
143. DLC is used for assessment of
a) Eosinophilia
b) Anemia
c) Leukocytosis
d) Leucopenia
Ans: a) Eosinophilia
144. Head ache of vascular origin are all except
a) Giant cell arteritis
b) Anesthesia dolorosa
c) Cluster head ache
d) Hemicrania
145. SABE of dental origin is caused by
a) Streptococcus viridans
b) Actinomyces
c) Streptococcus mutans
d) Streptococcus salivarius
Ans: a) Streptococcus viridans
146. A 9yr old child presents with generalized ulceration, fever, malaise, ulcers around the mouth.Treatment is
a) Symptomatic treatment and observation
b) Prescribe broad spectrum penicillin and mouthwash
c) Clean the mouth with a gentle mouthwash
d) …
Ans: a) Symptomatic treatment and observation
147. Which of the following increases turbulence in blood flow?
a) Reynolds number less than 2000
b) When velocity is decreased
c) When density of blood decreases
d) When diameter of blood vessel increases
Ans:
148.Facial nerve damage associated with
a) Transverse fracture of petrous temporal
b) Longitudinal fracture of petrous temporal
c) associated with csf otorhea
d) …
Ans: a) Transverse fracture of petrous temporal
149. Most common cause of pulmonary embolism
a) Lymphangitis
b) Endarteritis
c) Thrombophlebitis
d) …
Ans: c) Thrombophlebitis
139. A Patient with trauma suffers 15 % blood loss.
a) No treatment
b) Blood and colloidal transfusion
c) Colloidal transfusion only
d) Blood transfusion only
Ans: No treatment
140. In a deep wound, width is more than depth. It is
a) Stab wound
b) Slash
c) Laceration
d) Contaminated
Ans: b) Slash
141. Reactive arthritis is caused by
a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) H influenza
c) N. gonorrhoea
d) E coli
Ans:
142. Acute infection causes
a) Neutropenia
b) Leucopenia
c) Leucocytosis
d) …
Ans:
143. DLC is used for assessment of
a) Eosinophilia
b) Anemia
c) Leukocytosis
d) Leucopenia
Ans: a) Eosinophilia
144. Head ache of vascular origin are all except
a) Giant cell arteritis
b) Anesthesia dolorosa
c) Cluster head ache
d) Hemicrania
145. SABE of dental origin is caused by
a) Streptococcus viridans
b) Actinomyces
c) Streptococcus mutans
d) Streptococcus salivarius
Ans: a) Streptococcus viridans
146. A 9yr old child presents with generalized ulceration, fever, malaise, ulcers around the mouth.Treatment is
a) Symptomatic treatment and observation
b) Prescribe broad spectrum penicillin and mouthwash
c) Clean the mouth with a gentle mouthwash
d) …
Ans: a) Symptomatic treatment and observation
147. Which of the following increases turbulence in blood flow?
a) Reynolds number less than 2000
b) When velocity is decreased
c) When density of blood decreases
d) When diameter of blood vessel increases
Ans:
148.Facial nerve damage associated with
a) Transverse fracture of petrous temporal
b) Longitudinal fracture of petrous temporal
c) associated with csf otorhea
d) …
Ans: a) Transverse fracture of petrous temporal
149. Most common cause of pulmonary embolism
a) Lymphangitis
b) Endarteritis
c) Thrombophlebitis
d) …
Ans: c) Thrombophlebitis
AIPGE 09 MDS Periodontics
Periodontics
115.Attached gingiva
a) Always stippled
b) Resistant to masticatory stress and forces
c) Highly prone to infection
d) …..
Ans: b) Resistant to masticatory stress and forces
116.Dental floss is used for cleaning which type of embrasures
a) Type 1
b) Type 2
c) Type 3
d) All
Ans: a) Type 1
117. Gingival fibers which run between two teeth are
a) Transeptal fibers
b) Trans gingival
c) Oblique
d) Apical
Ans: a) Transeptal fibers
118. Which condition can be diagnosed only with radiograph
a) Periodontal abscess
b) Bifurcation involvement
c) Anatomical length of tooth
d) Periapical granuloma
Ans: c) Anatomical length of tooth
119. Periapical and periodontal abscess can be differentiated by
a) Probing
b) Radiograph
c) Histopathology
d) …
Ans:
120. Radiograph helps in the identification of
a) Depth of bone loss
b) Shape of the bony defect
c) Extent of bone loss
d) None
Ans:
121. Irreversible colonization of bacteria occurs in how much time after enamel is exposed to bacteria?
a) 24 hrs
b) 1-2 hrs
c) 3-4 hrs
d) Immediately
Ans: b) 1-2 hrs
122. Gingivosis is related most commonly to
a ) High progesterone
b) Low estrogen and testosterone
c) Pregnancy
d) …
Ans:
123.Periodontometer is used for
a) Tooth mobility
b) Periodontal pocket
c) GCF
d) Halitosis
Ans: a)Tooth mobility
124. What change occurs with time in supragingival plaque
a) Increase plaque mass
b) Becomes more G+ve
c) Becomes more G-ve
d) More spirochetal
Ans: b) Becomes more G-ve
125. First clinical sign of TFO
a) Tooth mobility
b) Wear facets
c) Bone loss
d) ……
Ans:a) tooth mobility
126. Green stains on tooth is caused by
a) Chromogenic bacteria
b) Lysis of neutrophils
c) Materia alba
d) ….
Ans: a) Chromogenic bacteria
127. In chronic marginal gingivitis, radiographic changes are
a) Horizontal bone loss
b) Vertical bone loss
c) Angular bone loss
d) None
Ans: d) None
128. Colour of subgingival calculus due to
a) Change in ph
b) RBC hemolysis
c) Leukocyte destruction
d) All of the above
Ans: b) RBC hemolysis
129. To measure periodontitis in a large population, what is used
a) Gingival index
b) Periodontal index
c) Plaque index
d) …
Ans:
130. Smoking is a predisposing factor to
a) ANUG
b) Juvenile periodontitis
c) Lichen planus
d) Hepatitis
Ans: ANUG
131. Juvenile periodontitis is due to
a) Decreased phagocytosis
b) Defect in neutrophil chemotaxic activity
c) …
d) …
Ans: b) Defect in neutrophil chemotaxic activity
132. Interdental col is susceptible to periodontal diseases due to
a) Non keratinized epithelium
b) It is difficult to clean
c) Highly prone to plaque accumulation
d) All the above
Ans: d) All of the above
133. true abt primary teeth
a)all calcify before birth
b)all primary n perm. incisors calcify before birth
134. Delayed hypersensitivity is found in periodontal infections due to
a) Sensitized T-lymphocyte to bacterial plaque
b) B lymphocyte
c) Immunoglobulins….
d) Immunecomplexes…..
Ans: a)Sensitized T-lymphocyte to bacterial plaque
135. Delayed hypersensitivity is found in periodontal infections due to [Repeat]
a) Sensitized T-lymphocyte to bacterial plaque
b) B lymphocyte
c) Immunoglobulins…..
d) All of the above
Ans: a)Sensitized T-lymphocyte to bacterial plaque
136.The difference between supragingival and subgingival calculus is the composition of supragingival calculus
a)
b) Plaque bacterial mass
c) Gm – ve organisms predominant
d) …
Ans: a) Varies with the intake of diet
137. A tooth has apical migration of epithelial attachment.Along with it gingival recession occurs.The tooth has
a) Shallow sulcus
b) Periodontal pocket
c) Gingival pocket
d) …
Ans:
138. Organism not seen in periodontal disease
a) Velionella
b) Fusobacterium
c) Neisseria
d) Spirochaets
Ans: c) Neisseria
115.Attached gingiva
a) Always stippled
b) Resistant to masticatory stress and forces
c) Highly prone to infection
d) …..
Ans: b) Resistant to masticatory stress and forces
116.Dental floss is used for cleaning which type of embrasures
a) Type 1
b) Type 2
c) Type 3
d) All
Ans: a) Type 1
117. Gingival fibers which run between two teeth are
a) Transeptal fibers
b) Trans gingival
c) Oblique
d) Apical
Ans: a) Transeptal fibers
118. Which condition can be diagnosed only with radiograph
a) Periodontal abscess
b) Bifurcation involvement
c) Anatomical length of tooth
d) Periapical granuloma
Ans: c) Anatomical length of tooth
119. Periapical and periodontal abscess can be differentiated by
a) Probing
b) Radiograph
c) Histopathology
d) …
Ans:
120. Radiograph helps in the identification of
a) Depth of bone loss
b) Shape of the bony defect
c) Extent of bone loss
d) None
Ans:
121. Irreversible colonization of bacteria occurs in how much time after enamel is exposed to bacteria?
a) 24 hrs
b) 1-2 hrs
c) 3-4 hrs
d) Immediately
Ans: b) 1-2 hrs
122. Gingivosis is related most commonly to
a ) High progesterone
b) Low estrogen and testosterone
c) Pregnancy
d) …
Ans:
123.Periodontometer is used for
a) Tooth mobility
b) Periodontal pocket
c) GCF
d) Halitosis
Ans: a)Tooth mobility
124. What change occurs with time in supragingival plaque
a) Increase plaque mass
b) Becomes more G+ve
c) Becomes more G-ve
d) More spirochetal
Ans: b) Becomes more G-ve
125. First clinical sign of TFO
a) Tooth mobility
b) Wear facets
c) Bone loss
d) ……
Ans:a) tooth mobility
126. Green stains on tooth is caused by
a) Chromogenic bacteria
b) Lysis of neutrophils
c) Materia alba
d) ….
Ans: a) Chromogenic bacteria
127. In chronic marginal gingivitis, radiographic changes are
a) Horizontal bone loss
b) Vertical bone loss
c) Angular bone loss
d) None
Ans: d) None
128. Colour of subgingival calculus due to
a) Change in ph
b) RBC hemolysis
c) Leukocyte destruction
d) All of the above
Ans: b) RBC hemolysis
129. To measure periodontitis in a large population, what is used
a) Gingival index
b) Periodontal index
c) Plaque index
d) …
Ans:
130. Smoking is a predisposing factor to
a) ANUG
b) Juvenile periodontitis
c) Lichen planus
d) Hepatitis
Ans: ANUG
131. Juvenile periodontitis is due to
a) Decreased phagocytosis
b) Defect in neutrophil chemotaxic activity
c) …
d) …
Ans: b) Defect in neutrophil chemotaxic activity
132. Interdental col is susceptible to periodontal diseases due to
a) Non keratinized epithelium
b) It is difficult to clean
c) Highly prone to plaque accumulation
d) All the above
Ans: d) All of the above
133. true abt primary teeth
a)all calcify before birth
b)all primary n perm. incisors calcify before birth
134. Delayed hypersensitivity is found in periodontal infections due to
a) Sensitized T-lymphocyte to bacterial plaque
b) B lymphocyte
c) Immunoglobulins….
d) Immunecomplexes…..
Ans: a)Sensitized T-lymphocyte to bacterial plaque
135. Delayed hypersensitivity is found in periodontal infections due to [Repeat]
a) Sensitized T-lymphocyte to bacterial plaque
b) B lymphocyte
c) Immunoglobulins…..
d) All of the above
Ans: a)Sensitized T-lymphocyte to bacterial plaque
136.The difference between supragingival and subgingival calculus is the composition of supragingival calculus
a)
b) Plaque bacterial mass
c) Gm – ve organisms predominant
d) …
Ans: a) Varies with the intake of diet
137. A tooth has apical migration of epithelial attachment.Along with it gingival recession occurs.The tooth has
a) Shallow sulcus
b) Periodontal pocket
c) Gingival pocket
d) …
Ans:
138. Organism not seen in periodontal disease
a) Velionella
b) Fusobacterium
c) Neisseria
d) Spirochaets
Ans: c) Neisseria
AIPGE 09 MDS General medicine
General medicine
106. Cells that are not found in lungs
a) Brush
b) Clara
c) Kulchisky
d) Langerhan
Ans: d) Langerhan
107. Radiographic feature of sinusitis includes:
a) Fluid level
b) Erosion of bone
c) Clouding of antra
d) Fluid level and clouding
Ans: d) Fluid level and clouding
108.In autism,
a) Incapacitance of motor and mental coordination
b) Mental retardation
c) Lack of motor skills
Ans: a) Incapacitance of motor and mental coordination
109. Which is seen in acromegaly
a) Large tongue
b) Hypoglycemia
c) Crowding of tooth
d) ……
Ans:a) Large tongue
110. One yr old child is suffering from asthma.Treatment is
a) Short acting beta 2 agonist
b) Inhalational steroid
c) Sustained slow release theophylline
d)
Ans:
111.Cats eye syndrome
a) Partial trisomy 21
b) Partial trisomy 22
c) Partial trisomy 13
d) Partial trisomy 18
112. Phlegmon is
a) Type of cellulites
b) STD
c) …
d) …
Ans: a) Type of cellulites
113. True about polio
a) Paralytic polio is most common
b) Spastic paralysis
c) Increased muscular activity leads to increased paralysis
d) Pulse polio immunization given <3 years using inactivated polio virus
Ans:
114. Benedict syndrome
a) …
b) …
c) …
d) …
Ans:
106. Cells that are not found in lungs
a) Brush
b) Clara
c) Kulchisky
d) Langerhan
Ans: d) Langerhan
107. Radiographic feature of sinusitis includes:
a) Fluid level
b) Erosion of bone
c) Clouding of antra
d) Fluid level and clouding
Ans: d) Fluid level and clouding
108.In autism,
a) Incapacitance of motor and mental coordination
b) Mental retardation
c) Lack of motor skills
Ans: a) Incapacitance of motor and mental coordination
109. Which is seen in acromegaly
a) Large tongue
b) Hypoglycemia
c) Crowding of tooth
d) ……
Ans:a) Large tongue
110. One yr old child is suffering from asthma.Treatment is
a) Short acting beta 2 agonist
b) Inhalational steroid
c) Sustained slow release theophylline
d)
Ans:
111.Cats eye syndrome
a) Partial trisomy 21
b) Partial trisomy 22
c) Partial trisomy 13
d) Partial trisomy 18
112. Phlegmon is
a) Type of cellulites
b) STD
c) …
d) …
Ans: a) Type of cellulites
113. True about polio
a) Paralytic polio is most common
b) Spastic paralysis
c) Increased muscular activity leads to increased paralysis
d) Pulse polio immunization given <3 years using inactivated polio virus
Ans:
114. Benedict syndrome
a) …
b) …
c) …
d) …
Ans:
AIPGE 09 MDS Oral pathology
Oral pathology
69.Commonest site of keratoacanthoma
a) Lip
b) Palate
c) Buccal mucosa
d) Tongue
Ans: a) Lip
70. Moth eaten app is seen in all except
a) Osteomyelitis
b) Haemorrhagic cyst
c) OKC
d) Osteosarcoma
Ans okc
71. Ehler danlos syndrome is
a) Autosomal dominant,
b) Autosomalecessive
c) X linked dominant
d) X linked recessive
Ans a) Autosomal dominant,
72. Nasoalveolar cyst is also known as
a) Kledstadt cyst
b) Bohns nodules
c) Epstein pearls
Ans: a)Kledstadt cyst
73. Most common tumor of parotid gland
a) Pleomorphic adenoma
b) Warthins tumor
c) Adenoidcystic carcinoma
Ans: a) Pleomorphic adenoma
74. White radiating lines on the buccal mucosa are seen in
a) Lichen planus
b) Leucoplakia
c) WSN
d) Leukedema
Ans: a)Lichen planus
75.Chronic burrowing ulcer of skin is caused by
a) Microaerophillus streptococcus
b) Streptococcus pyogenes
c) Peptostreptococcus
d) Streptococcus Viridans
Ans: a) Microaerophillus streptococcus
76. Dentinogenesis imperfecta is a
a) Autosomal dominant
b) Autosomal recessive
c) X linked dominant
d) X linked recessive
Ans: a)autosomal dominant
77. The disorder characterised by craniosynostosis and preaxial polysyndactyly of feet. soft tissue syndactyly is also present.
a) Carpenter syndrome
b) Crouzon syndrome
c) Apert syndrome
Ans: a) Carpenter syndrome
78. In Millard Gubler syndrome all are involved except:
a) 5th cranial nerve
b) 6th cranial nerve
c) 7th cranial nerve
d) Contralateral hemiplegia
Ans:
79. An infant with cleft lip, cleft palate, polydactly, microcephaly with holoprosencephaly, ectodermal scalp defect is suffering from:
a) Trisomy 21
b) Trisomy 18
c) Trisomy 13
d) Turner syndrome
Ans: c) Trisomy 13
80. Staghorn pattern seen in
a) Hemangiopericytoma
b) …
c) …
d) …
Ans: a) Hemangiopericytoma
81. A patient is suffering from severe facial pain and a nasopharyngeal tumor is present on the lateral wall of larynx. The patient is suffering from
a) Plummervinson syndrome
b)Trotters syndrome
c) Reiters syndrome
Ans: b) Trotters syndrome
82. Rushton bodies are seen in
a) Periapical cyst
b) Periapical granuloma
c) Dentigerous cyst
Ans: a) Periapical cyst
83. Most common site of occurrence of sialolith is in
a) Parotid gland
b) Sublingual gland
c) Submandibular gland
Ans: c) Submandibular gland
84. A mid aged female patient has eyes widely placed, sparse hair, increased systolic BP, increased pulse pressure, weight loss and nervousness. She may be suffering from
a) Hyperthyroidism
b) Hypothyroidism
c) Hyperparathyroidism
d) Hypopituitarism
Ans a) Hyperthyroidism
85. Mosaic pattern of bone is seen in
a) Fibrous dysplasia
b) Osteitis deformans
c) Osteomyelitis
d) Ewings sarcoma
Ans: b) Osteitis deformans
86. Ground glass appearance of bone in a radiograph is seen in
a) Hyperparathyroidism,
b) Hyperthyroidism
c) Hypothyroidism
d)Hypoparathyroidism
Ans: a)Hyperparathyroidism
87. An 8yr old boy comes to your clinic with a chief complaint of large and jagged front teeth.Treatment would be
a) Trim the teeth and apply fluoride varnish to prevent sensitivity
b) Build the other teeth to the same size
c) Extract the teeth
d) Reassure the child and send him home.
Ans: d) Reassure the child and send him home
88. A bluish purple swelling is present behind a lower primary second molar in a 6yr old child.Treatment is
a) No treatment.only observation
b) Injecting proteolytic solution in the area
c) Surgical excision of the flap
Ans: a)No treatment.only observation
89. In a patient with cerebral palsy, all are seen except
a) Increased dental caries
b) Fluorosis
c) Increased salivation
d) Trauma
Ans: b) Fluorosis
90. Excess ingestion of fluorides is absorbed by the intestines. It is excreted by
a) Kidney
b) Lung
c) Liver
d) Saliva
Ans: a) Kidney
91. Rhabdomyosarcoma is a disorder of
a) Smooth muscle
b) Striated muscle
c) Cardiac muscle
d) Epithelium
Ans: b) Striated muscle
92. Apatient with severely discolored teeth, fractured enamel, undefined DEJ, severe attrition has
a) Severe flourosis
b) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
c) Amelogenesis imperfecta
d) Dentin dysplasia
Ans: b) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
93. Most common malignancy in AIDS
a) Kaposis
b) Hodgkins lymphoma
c) SCC
d) Non hodgkins lymphoma
94. Radiographic feature of sinusitis includes:
a) Fluid level
b) Erosion of bone
c) Clouding of antra
d) Fluid level and clouding
Ans: d) Fluid level and clouding
95.Saw tooth rete pegs seen in
a) Lichen planus
b) Leukoplakia
c) Leukedma
d) WSN
Ans: a) Lichen planus
96. The difference in epithelial lining of cyst and oral cavity
a) Stratum germinatum
b) Stratum corneum
c) Stratum spinosum
d) Stratum incidium
Ans: a) Stratum germinatum
97. Neonatal teeth are seen
a) Erupt within 30days of birth
b) At birth
c) Erupt in 6months
d) …
Ans: a) Erupt within 30 days of birth
98. Geniculate neuralgia associated with
a) Facial nerve
b) Trigeminal nerve
c)glossopharyngeal nerve
d) Vagus nerve
Ans: a)Facial nerve
99.Moth eaten appearance is seen in all except
a) Osteomyelitis
b) Haemorrhagic cyst
c) OKC
d) Osteosarcoma
Ans:
100. Movement of jaw with opening of eyes occur in
a) Jaw winking syndrome
b) …
c) …
d) …
Ans: a) Jaw winking syndrome
101. A periapical granuloma and periapical abscess can be differenciated by
a) Radiograph
b) Vitality
c) Clinically
d) Histopathologically
Ans: d) Histopathologically
102. Juvenile periodontitis caused by
a) Gram negative aerobes
b) Gram negative anaerobes
c) Facultative anaerobes
d) Aerobes
Ans: b)Gram negative anaerobes
103. Monocytosis
a) Hodgkins disease
b) Multiple myloma
c) …
d) …
Ans:
1044. Hypoplasia of permanent tooth caused by local injury to primary tooth
a) Turners hypoplasia
b) …
c) …
d) …
Ans:
105. True among following
a) All primary teeth calcify before birth
b) All primary and permanent molars calcify before birth
c) All primary and permanent incisors and molars calcify before birth
d) All primary and permanent canines calcify before birth
Ans: a)All primary teeth calcify before birth
69.Commonest site of keratoacanthoma
a) Lip
b) Palate
c) Buccal mucosa
d) Tongue
Ans: a) Lip
70. Moth eaten app is seen in all except
a) Osteomyelitis
b) Haemorrhagic cyst
c) OKC
d) Osteosarcoma
Ans okc
71. Ehler danlos syndrome is
a) Autosomal dominant,
b) Autosomalecessive
c) X linked dominant
d) X linked recessive
Ans a) Autosomal dominant,
72. Nasoalveolar cyst is also known as
a) Kledstadt cyst
b) Bohns nodules
c) Epstein pearls
Ans: a)Kledstadt cyst
73. Most common tumor of parotid gland
a) Pleomorphic adenoma
b) Warthins tumor
c) Adenoidcystic carcinoma
Ans: a) Pleomorphic adenoma
74. White radiating lines on the buccal mucosa are seen in
a) Lichen planus
b) Leucoplakia
c) WSN
d) Leukedema
Ans: a)Lichen planus
75.Chronic burrowing ulcer of skin is caused by
a) Microaerophillus streptococcus
b) Streptococcus pyogenes
c) Peptostreptococcus
d) Streptococcus Viridans
Ans: a) Microaerophillus streptococcus
76. Dentinogenesis imperfecta is a
a) Autosomal dominant
b) Autosomal recessive
c) X linked dominant
d) X linked recessive
Ans: a)autosomal dominant
77. The disorder characterised by craniosynostosis and preaxial polysyndactyly of feet. soft tissue syndactyly is also present.
a) Carpenter syndrome
b) Crouzon syndrome
c) Apert syndrome
Ans: a) Carpenter syndrome
78. In Millard Gubler syndrome all are involved except:
a) 5th cranial nerve
b) 6th cranial nerve
c) 7th cranial nerve
d) Contralateral hemiplegia
Ans:
79. An infant with cleft lip, cleft palate, polydactly, microcephaly with holoprosencephaly, ectodermal scalp defect is suffering from:
a) Trisomy 21
b) Trisomy 18
c) Trisomy 13
d) Turner syndrome
Ans: c) Trisomy 13
80. Staghorn pattern seen in
a) Hemangiopericytoma
b) …
c) …
d) …
Ans: a) Hemangiopericytoma
81. A patient is suffering from severe facial pain and a nasopharyngeal tumor is present on the lateral wall of larynx. The patient is suffering from
a) Plummervinson syndrome
b)Trotters syndrome
c) Reiters syndrome
Ans: b) Trotters syndrome
82. Rushton bodies are seen in
a) Periapical cyst
b) Periapical granuloma
c) Dentigerous cyst
Ans: a) Periapical cyst
83. Most common site of occurrence of sialolith is in
a) Parotid gland
b) Sublingual gland
c) Submandibular gland
Ans: c) Submandibular gland
84. A mid aged female patient has eyes widely placed, sparse hair, increased systolic BP, increased pulse pressure, weight loss and nervousness. She may be suffering from
a) Hyperthyroidism
b) Hypothyroidism
c) Hyperparathyroidism
d) Hypopituitarism
Ans a) Hyperthyroidism
85. Mosaic pattern of bone is seen in
a) Fibrous dysplasia
b) Osteitis deformans
c) Osteomyelitis
d) Ewings sarcoma
Ans: b) Osteitis deformans
86. Ground glass appearance of bone in a radiograph is seen in
a) Hyperparathyroidism,
b) Hyperthyroidism
c) Hypothyroidism
d)Hypoparathyroidism
Ans: a)Hyperparathyroidism
87. An 8yr old boy comes to your clinic with a chief complaint of large and jagged front teeth.Treatment would be
a) Trim the teeth and apply fluoride varnish to prevent sensitivity
b) Build the other teeth to the same size
c) Extract the teeth
d) Reassure the child and send him home.
Ans: d) Reassure the child and send him home
88. A bluish purple swelling is present behind a lower primary second molar in a 6yr old child.Treatment is
a) No treatment.only observation
b) Injecting proteolytic solution in the area
c) Surgical excision of the flap
Ans: a)No treatment.only observation
89. In a patient with cerebral palsy, all are seen except
a) Increased dental caries
b) Fluorosis
c) Increased salivation
d) Trauma
Ans: b) Fluorosis
90. Excess ingestion of fluorides is absorbed by the intestines. It is excreted by
a) Kidney
b) Lung
c) Liver
d) Saliva
Ans: a) Kidney
91. Rhabdomyosarcoma is a disorder of
a) Smooth muscle
b) Striated muscle
c) Cardiac muscle
d) Epithelium
Ans: b) Striated muscle
92. Apatient with severely discolored teeth, fractured enamel, undefined DEJ, severe attrition has
a) Severe flourosis
b) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
c) Amelogenesis imperfecta
d) Dentin dysplasia
Ans: b) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
93. Most common malignancy in AIDS
a) Kaposis
b) Hodgkins lymphoma
c) SCC
d) Non hodgkins lymphoma
94. Radiographic feature of sinusitis includes:
a) Fluid level
b) Erosion of bone
c) Clouding of antra
d) Fluid level and clouding
Ans: d) Fluid level and clouding
95.Saw tooth rete pegs seen in
a) Lichen planus
b) Leukoplakia
c) Leukedma
d) WSN
Ans: a) Lichen planus
96. The difference in epithelial lining of cyst and oral cavity
a) Stratum germinatum
b) Stratum corneum
c) Stratum spinosum
d) Stratum incidium
Ans: a) Stratum germinatum
97. Neonatal teeth are seen
a) Erupt within 30days of birth
b) At birth
c) Erupt in 6months
d) …
Ans: a) Erupt within 30 days of birth
98. Geniculate neuralgia associated with
a) Facial nerve
b) Trigeminal nerve
c)glossopharyngeal nerve
d) Vagus nerve
Ans: a)Facial nerve
99.Moth eaten appearance is seen in all except
a) Osteomyelitis
b) Haemorrhagic cyst
c) OKC
d) Osteosarcoma
Ans:
100. Movement of jaw with opening of eyes occur in
a) Jaw winking syndrome
b) …
c) …
d) …
Ans: a) Jaw winking syndrome
101. A periapical granuloma and periapical abscess can be differenciated by
a) Radiograph
b) Vitality
c) Clinically
d) Histopathologically
Ans: d) Histopathologically
102. Juvenile periodontitis caused by
a) Gram negative aerobes
b) Gram negative anaerobes
c) Facultative anaerobes
d) Aerobes
Ans: b)Gram negative anaerobes
103. Monocytosis
a) Hodgkins disease
b) Multiple myloma
c) …
d) …
Ans:
1044. Hypoplasia of permanent tooth caused by local injury to primary tooth
a) Turners hypoplasia
b) …
c) …
d) …
Ans:
105. True among following
a) All primary teeth calcify before birth
b) All primary and permanent molars calcify before birth
c) All primary and permanent incisors and molars calcify before birth
d) All primary and permanent canines calcify before birth
Ans: a)All primary teeth calcify before birth
AIPGE 09 MDS Community dentistry
Community dentistry
58. In national water supply and sanitation programme a “problem village” is defined as all except
a) Distance of safe water is within 1.5 kms
b) Watertable below….kms
c) Water source has excess iron and heavy metals
d) Water infested with guinea worm
Ans: d) Distance of safe water within 1.5 Kms
59. A sampling unit refers to
a) Group of sample
b) Subset of sample
c) Every individual of a sample
d) All
Ans: c) Every individual of a sample
60. In a set of observations the relative variability
a) Coefficient of variance
b) Standard deviation
c) Standard error
d) …
Ans: a) Coefficient of variance
61. Which of the following is an example of disability limitation?
a) Reducing occurrence of polio by immunization
b) Arranging for schooling of child suffering from PRPP
c) Resting affected limbs in neutral position
d) Providing calipers for walking
Ans: c) Resting affected limbs in neutral position
62. Which of these represent a normal distribution?
a) When all data is distributed equally in a whole group
b) When mode, median and mean coincide
c) When positives are two times the negatives
d) When positives are four times the negatives
Ans: b) When mode, median and mean coincide
63. Specificity of a screening test measures
a) True positives
b) False positives
c) False negatives
d) True negatives
Ans: True negatives
64. In a study in UK, an association was found between increased sale of antiasthmatic drug and an increase in deaths due to asthma. This is an example of
a) Ecological study
b) Cohort study
c) Case reference study
d) Experimental study
Ans: a) Ecological study
65. Occupational cancer involve following organs except:
a) Lung
b) Breast
c) Bladder
d) Liver
Ans: b) Breast
66. A periodontal index is used to check the status of periodontal disease in a survey. Each tooth surface is divided into 9 parts in the index. It is
a) Navy plaque index
b) Glass index
c) Stillness and loe index
d) PHP index
Ans: a) Navy plaque index
67. Most common cause of female mortality in India during childbirth
a) Hemorrhage
b) Abortion
c) Anemia
d) Sepsis
Ans: a) Hemorrhage
68. Adjuvant used in DPT vaccine is
a) Zinc
b) Aluminum
c) Copper
d) Magnesium
Ans: b) Aluminum
58. In national water supply and sanitation programme a “problem village” is defined as all except
a) Distance of safe water is within 1.5 kms
b) Watertable below….kms
c) Water source has excess iron and heavy metals
d) Water infested with guinea worm
Ans: d) Distance of safe water within 1.5 Kms
59. A sampling unit refers to
a) Group of sample
b) Subset of sample
c) Every individual of a sample
d) All
Ans: c) Every individual of a sample
60. In a set of observations the relative variability
a) Coefficient of variance
b) Standard deviation
c) Standard error
d) …
Ans: a) Coefficient of variance
61. Which of the following is an example of disability limitation?
a) Reducing occurrence of polio by immunization
b) Arranging for schooling of child suffering from PRPP
c) Resting affected limbs in neutral position
d) Providing calipers for walking
Ans: c) Resting affected limbs in neutral position
62. Which of these represent a normal distribution?
a) When all data is distributed equally in a whole group
b) When mode, median and mean coincide
c) When positives are two times the negatives
d) When positives are four times the negatives
Ans: b) When mode, median and mean coincide
63. Specificity of a screening test measures
a) True positives
b) False positives
c) False negatives
d) True negatives
Ans: True negatives
64. In a study in UK, an association was found between increased sale of antiasthmatic drug and an increase in deaths due to asthma. This is an example of
a) Ecological study
b) Cohort study
c) Case reference study
d) Experimental study
Ans: a) Ecological study
65. Occupational cancer involve following organs except:
a) Lung
b) Breast
c) Bladder
d) Liver
Ans: b) Breast
66. A periodontal index is used to check the status of periodontal disease in a survey. Each tooth surface is divided into 9 parts in the index. It is
a) Navy plaque index
b) Glass index
c) Stillness and loe index
d) PHP index
Ans: a) Navy plaque index
67. Most common cause of female mortality in India during childbirth
a) Hemorrhage
b) Abortion
c) Anemia
d) Sepsis
Ans: a) Hemorrhage
68. Adjuvant used in DPT vaccine is
a) Zinc
b) Aluminum
c) Copper
d) Magnesium
Ans: b) Aluminum
AIPGE 09 MDS Microbiology
48. True about mycobacterium other than tuberculosis (MOTT)
a) Causes disseminated infection
b) Occurs in persons with normal immunity
c) Causes decreased efficacy of BCG due to cross immunity
d) Person to person trAnsmission is seen
Ans:
49. Life cycle of filaria is
a) Cyclodevelopmental
b) Cyclopropagative
c) Propagative
d) Tran ovarian
Ans: a) Cyclodevelopmental
50. Herpangina is caused by
a) Coxsackie virus
b) HSV
c) HBV
d) EBV
Ans: a)Coxsackie virus
51. TRUE among the following:
a) Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is used by inhalation of rodent urine and feces
b) Kyanasur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal
c) Lyssa virus is trAnsmitted by ticks
d) ……
Ans: a) Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is used by inhalation of rodent urine and feces
Dental materials
52. Purpose of indium in amalgam
a) Eliminate gamma phase
b) Eliminate gamma-2 phase
c) Decrease Hg release on mastication
d) Decrease Hg release on abrasion
Ans
53. Bonding of GIC to tooth structure is brought about by
a) Metal ions
b) Hydroxyl bond
c) Carboxyl bond
Ans
54: Order of setting of GIC is
a) Gelation, migration, post setting contraction
b) …
c) …
d) …
Ans:
55. Action of primer
a) Removal of smear layer
b) Increases surface free energy of dentin
c) Forms thin layer between collagen and resin
d) Bonds with composite
Ans:
56. Polymerization shrinkage of composite causes compression stress of
a) 1 mpa
b) 15mpa
c) 5 mpa
d) 30 mpa
Ans:
57. To increase the efficiency of tungsten Carbide bur
a) Should run only after touching the tooth
b) Run at high speed before touching the tooth
c) Run at low speed before touching the tooth
d) Run before entering the oral cavity
Ans: c) Run at low speed before touching the tooth
a) Causes disseminated infection
b) Occurs in persons with normal immunity
c) Causes decreased efficacy of BCG due to cross immunity
d) Person to person trAnsmission is seen
Ans:
49. Life cycle of filaria is
a) Cyclodevelopmental
b) Cyclopropagative
c) Propagative
d) Tran ovarian
Ans: a) Cyclodevelopmental
50. Herpangina is caused by
a) Coxsackie virus
b) HSV
c) HBV
d) EBV
Ans: a)Coxsackie virus
51. TRUE among the following:
a) Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is used by inhalation of rodent urine and feces
b) Kyanasur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal
c) Lyssa virus is trAnsmitted by ticks
d) ……
Ans: a) Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is used by inhalation of rodent urine and feces
Dental materials
52. Purpose of indium in amalgam
a) Eliminate gamma phase
b) Eliminate gamma-2 phase
c) Decrease Hg release on mastication
d) Decrease Hg release on abrasion
Ans
53. Bonding of GIC to tooth structure is brought about by
a) Metal ions
b) Hydroxyl bond
c) Carboxyl bond
Ans
54: Order of setting of GIC is
a) Gelation, migration, post setting contraction
b) …
c) …
d) …
Ans:
55. Action of primer
a) Removal of smear layer
b) Increases surface free energy of dentin
c) Forms thin layer between collagen and resin
d) Bonds with composite
Ans:
56. Polymerization shrinkage of composite causes compression stress of
a) 1 mpa
b) 15mpa
c) 5 mpa
d) 30 mpa
Ans:
57. To increase the efficiency of tungsten Carbide bur
a) Should run only after touching the tooth
b) Run at high speed before touching the tooth
c) Run at low speed before touching the tooth
d) Run before entering the oral cavity
Ans: c) Run at low speed before touching the tooth
AIPGE 09 MDS Physiology
Physiology
38. In an obese person, BMI is
a) >10
b) >20
c) >30
d) >40
Ans: c) >30
39. Which of the following increases turbulence in blood flow?
a) Reynolds number less than 2000
b) When velocity is decreased
c) When density of blood decreases
d) When diameter of blood vessel increases
Ans:
40. Pulmonary circulation differs from systemic circulation
a) Pulmonary vasodilatation in hypoxia
b) Pulmonary vasoconstriction in hypoxia
c) Decreased blood volume during systole
d) Increased basal vasoconstrictor tone
Ans: b) Pulmonary vasoconstriction in hypoxia
41. Plasmocytoma of B cell origin is
a) Hodgkin’s lymphoma
b) Plasmocytoma
c) Multiple Myeloma
d) Non hodgkins lymphoma
Ans: c) Multiple myeloma
42. Increase in threshold level on applying sub threshold, slowly rising stimulus is known as
a) Adaptation
b) Accommodation
c) Refractoriness
d) Electrotronus
Ans: Accomodation
43. Which deficiency affects tooth development?
a) Vit. A
b) Carbohydrates
c) Vit. E
d) Vit B
Ans: Vit A
44: In compression osteosynthesis bone heals by
a) Primary union
b) Secondary union
c) Tertiary union
Ans: a) Primary union
45. A paradoxical movement of chest during inspiration and expiration in a patient who has suffered trauma
a) Frail chest
b) Cardiac tamponade
c) Dyspnoea
d) Pneumothorax
Ans:
46. When a minimal injury as a glancing blow is struck, to what variable is it related?
a) Position of strike
b) Area of strike
c) Angulations of strike
d) Location of strike
Ans:
47. In hemophilia, the drug administered before a surgical procedure is
a) Vitamin K
b) Aspirin
c) Epsilon caproic acid
d) Chloral hydrate
Ans; c) Epsilon caproic acid
38. In an obese person, BMI is
a) >10
b) >20
c) >30
d) >40
Ans: c) >30
39. Which of the following increases turbulence in blood flow?
a) Reynolds number less than 2000
b) When velocity is decreased
c) When density of blood decreases
d) When diameter of blood vessel increases
Ans:
40. Pulmonary circulation differs from systemic circulation
a) Pulmonary vasodilatation in hypoxia
b) Pulmonary vasoconstriction in hypoxia
c) Decreased blood volume during systole
d) Increased basal vasoconstrictor tone
Ans: b) Pulmonary vasoconstriction in hypoxia
41. Plasmocytoma of B cell origin is
a) Hodgkin’s lymphoma
b) Plasmocytoma
c) Multiple Myeloma
d) Non hodgkins lymphoma
Ans: c) Multiple myeloma
42. Increase in threshold level on applying sub threshold, slowly rising stimulus is known as
a) Adaptation
b) Accommodation
c) Refractoriness
d) Electrotronus
Ans: Accomodation
43. Which deficiency affects tooth development?
a) Vit. A
b) Carbohydrates
c) Vit. E
d) Vit B
Ans: Vit A
44: In compression osteosynthesis bone heals by
a) Primary union
b) Secondary union
c) Tertiary union
Ans: a) Primary union
45. A paradoxical movement of chest during inspiration and expiration in a patient who has suffered trauma
a) Frail chest
b) Cardiac tamponade
c) Dyspnoea
d) Pneumothorax
Ans:
46. When a minimal injury as a glancing blow is struck, to what variable is it related?
a) Position of strike
b) Area of strike
c) Angulations of strike
d) Location of strike
Ans:
47. In hemophilia, the drug administered before a surgical procedure is
a) Vitamin K
b) Aspirin
c) Epsilon caproic acid
d) Chloral hydrate
Ans; c) Epsilon caproic acid
AIPGE 09 MDS Anatomy
Anatomy
27. Which is not a branch of cavernous part of internal carotid artery?
a) Cavernous branch
b) Inferior hypophyseal
c) Meningeal artery
d) Ophthalmic artery
Ans: d) Ophthalmic artery ooooooooo
28. Which of the following supplies capsule of TMJ
a) Facial nerve
b) Maxillary nerve
c) Auriculotemporal nerve
d) Mandibular nerve
Ans: c) Auriculotemporal nerveoooooooooo
29. Regarding Golgi tendon organ true is
a) Senses dynamic length of muscle
b) Involved in reciprocal innervation
c) Alpha-motor neuron stimulation
d) Senses muscle tension
Ans: d) Senses muscle tension ooooooooo
30. Not a tributary of cavernous sinus
a) Superficial middle cerebral vein
b) Deep petrosal sinus
c) Inferior petrosal sinus
d) Superior petrosal sinus
Ans: a) Superficial middle cerebral vein
31. Sensory branch of mandibular nerve is
a) Mylohyoid
b) Lingual
c) Long buccal
d) Buccal nerve
Ans: d) Long buccal nerve
32. Motor supply of tongue is by
a) Hypoglossal
b) Glossopharyngeal
c) Vagus
d) Facial
Ans: a) Hypoglossal
33. What is the type of joints between ossicles of ear
a) Fibrous joint
b) Primary cartilaginous
c) Secondary cartilaginous
d) Synovial joint
Ans: d) Synovial joint
34. All r composite muscle except
a) Pectineus
b) Rectus femris
c) Adductor magnus
d) Biceps femoris
Ans: b) Rectus femris
35. When does TMJ start developing in utero
a) 2nd week
b) 10th week
c) 20th week
d) 29 week
Ans: b)10th week
36. Premature synostis of coronal suture along with basal sutures is seen in
a) Oxycephaly
b) b\Brachycephaly
c) Trigonocephaly
d) Scandamocephaly
Ans: a) Oxycephaly
37. Not a digastric muscle
a) Occipitofrontalis
b) Sternocleidomastoid
c)
d)
Ans: b) Sternocleidomastoid
27. Which is not a branch of cavernous part of internal carotid artery?
a) Cavernous branch
b) Inferior hypophyseal
c) Meningeal artery
d) Ophthalmic artery
Ans: d) Ophthalmic artery ooooooooo
28. Which of the following supplies capsule of TMJ
a) Facial nerve
b) Maxillary nerve
c) Auriculotemporal nerve
d) Mandibular nerve
Ans: c) Auriculotemporal nerveoooooooooo
29. Regarding Golgi tendon organ true is
a) Senses dynamic length of muscle
b) Involved in reciprocal innervation
c) Alpha-motor neuron stimulation
d) Senses muscle tension
Ans: d) Senses muscle tension ooooooooo
30. Not a tributary of cavernous sinus
a) Superficial middle cerebral vein
b) Deep petrosal sinus
c) Inferior petrosal sinus
d) Superior petrosal sinus
Ans: a) Superficial middle cerebral vein
31. Sensory branch of mandibular nerve is
a) Mylohyoid
b) Lingual
c) Long buccal
d) Buccal nerve
Ans: d) Long buccal nerve
32. Motor supply of tongue is by
a) Hypoglossal
b) Glossopharyngeal
c) Vagus
d) Facial
Ans: a) Hypoglossal
33. What is the type of joints between ossicles of ear
a) Fibrous joint
b) Primary cartilaginous
c) Secondary cartilaginous
d) Synovial joint
Ans: d) Synovial joint
34. All r composite muscle except
a) Pectineus
b) Rectus femris
c) Adductor magnus
d) Biceps femoris
Ans: b) Rectus femris
35. When does TMJ start developing in utero
a) 2nd week
b) 10th week
c) 20th week
d) 29 week
Ans: b)10th week
36. Premature synostis of coronal suture along with basal sutures is seen in
a) Oxycephaly
b) b\Brachycephaly
c) Trigonocephaly
d) Scandamocephaly
Ans: a) Oxycephaly
37. Not a digastric muscle
a) Occipitofrontalis
b) Sternocleidomastoid
c)
d)
Ans: b) Sternocleidomastoid
AIPGE 09 MDS Biochemistry
Biochemistry
18. True about denaturation of proteins are all except:
a) Unfolding occurs
b) Disruption of secondary structure occurs
c) Sequence of amino acids remain the same
d) Biological activity is retained
Ans: d) Biological activity is retained ooooooooo
19. Insulin causes lipogenesis by all except:
a) Increasing acetyl-CoA carboxylase activity
b) Increases the trAnsport of glucose into the cells
c) Inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase
d) Decreases intracellular cAMP level
Ans: c) Inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase
20. True about G protein coupled receptors is:
a) G proteins bind to hormones on the cell surface
b) All the three subunits alpha, beta and gamma should bind each other G protein to act
c) G proteins act as inhibitory and excitatory because of difference in alpha subunit
d) G protein is bound to GTP in resting state
Ans: c) G proteins act as inhibitory and excitatory because of difference in alpha subunit ooooooo
21. Thiamine deficiency causes decreased energy production because
a) It is required for the process of transamination
b) It is co-factor in oxidative reduction
c) It is co-enzyme for transketolase in pentose phosphate pathway
d) It is co-enzyme for pyruvate dehydrogenase
Ans: d) It is co-enzyme for pyruvate dehydrogenase
22. All are true about glutathione except:
a) It is a tripeptide
b) It converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin
c) It conjugates xenobiotics
d) It scavenges free radicals and superoxide ions
Ans: b) It converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin oooooo
23. In molecular cloning, Blue-white screening is used for:
a) To screen for recombinant vectors
b) To detect gene mutations
c) To identify desired chromosomal DNA insert in plasmid vectors
d) To detect host DNA in situ
Ans: c) To identify desired chromosomal DNA insert in plasmid vectors
24. Steroid hormone receptors have attachment site for all except:
a) Steroid hormone
b) Transcription repressors
c) Hormone responsive element
d) Transcription activators
Ans: b) Transcription repressors
25. Why fetal cells continue to divide but terminally differentiated adult do not divide
a) There are many cyclin inhibitors which prevent cell to enter into S phase in adult
b) Phosphatase absent in fetal cells
c) Proteinase is absent in fetus
d) Absence of CD kinase
Ans:
26. All are true about glutathione except:
a) It is a tripeptide
b) It converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin
c) It conjugates xenobiotics
d) It scavenges free radicals and superoxide ions
Ans: It converts methhemoglobin to hemoglobin
18. True about denaturation of proteins are all except:
a) Unfolding occurs
b) Disruption of secondary structure occurs
c) Sequence of amino acids remain the same
d) Biological activity is retained
Ans: d) Biological activity is retained ooooooooo
19. Insulin causes lipogenesis by all except:
a) Increasing acetyl-CoA carboxylase activity
b) Increases the trAnsport of glucose into the cells
c) Inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase
d) Decreases intracellular cAMP level
Ans: c) Inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase
20. True about G protein coupled receptors is:
a) G proteins bind to hormones on the cell surface
b) All the three subunits alpha, beta and gamma should bind each other G protein to act
c) G proteins act as inhibitory and excitatory because of difference in alpha subunit
d) G protein is bound to GTP in resting state
Ans: c) G proteins act as inhibitory and excitatory because of difference in alpha subunit ooooooo
21. Thiamine deficiency causes decreased energy production because
a) It is required for the process of transamination
b) It is co-factor in oxidative reduction
c) It is co-enzyme for transketolase in pentose phosphate pathway
d) It is co-enzyme for pyruvate dehydrogenase
Ans: d) It is co-enzyme for pyruvate dehydrogenase
22. All are true about glutathione except:
a) It is a tripeptide
b) It converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin
c) It conjugates xenobiotics
d) It scavenges free radicals and superoxide ions
Ans: b) It converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin oooooo
23. In molecular cloning, Blue-white screening is used for:
a) To screen for recombinant vectors
b) To detect gene mutations
c) To identify desired chromosomal DNA insert in plasmid vectors
d) To detect host DNA in situ
Ans: c) To identify desired chromosomal DNA insert in plasmid vectors
24. Steroid hormone receptors have attachment site for all except:
a) Steroid hormone
b) Transcription repressors
c) Hormone responsive element
d) Transcription activators
Ans: b) Transcription repressors
25. Why fetal cells continue to divide but terminally differentiated adult do not divide
a) There are many cyclin inhibitors which prevent cell to enter into S phase in adult
b) Phosphatase absent in fetal cells
c) Proteinase is absent in fetus
d) Absence of CD kinase
Ans:
26. All are true about glutathione except:
a) It is a tripeptide
b) It converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin
c) It conjugates xenobiotics
d) It scavenges free radicals and superoxide ions
Ans: It converts methhemoglobin to hemoglobin
AIPGE 09 MDS Pharmacology
Pharmacology
1. First drug to be used in absent seizures:
a) Phenytoin
b) Benzodiazepines
c) Valproate
d) Carbamazepine
Ans: c)Valproate
2. Loading dose depends on:
a) Volume of distribution
b) Clearance
c) Rate of administration
d) Half life
Ans: a)Volume of distribution
3. Drug not used in H. pylori:
a) Metronidazole
b) Omeprezole
c) Mosapride
d) Amoxicillin
Ans: c- Mosapride
4. Drug not used in H pylori
a) Metronidazole
b) Omeprazole
c) Oxytetracycline
d) Bismuth subcitrate
Ans:
5. Long acting beta-2 agonist?
a) Albuterol
b) Salmetarol
c) Pirlbuterol
d) Orciprenaline
Ans: b) Salmetarol
6. Benzodiazepine antagonist ?
a) Flumazenil
b) Naloxone
c) Furazolidone
d) Naltrexone
Ans: a) Flumazenil
7. Cross resistance of isoniazid is seen with:
a) Rifampicin
b) Ethionamide
c) Cycloserine
d) Ethambutol
Ans: b) Ethionamide
8. Which drug is not acetylated?
a) INH
b) Dapsone
c) Hydralazine
d) Metoclopropamide
Ans: d) Metoclopropamide
9.. Which is a prodrug?
a) Enalapril
b) Clonidine
c) Salmeterol
d) Acetazolamide
Ans: a) Enalapril
10.. Which is not a 2nd generation antihistaminic?
a) Loratidine
b) Acrivastatine
c) Cyclizine
d) ……….
Ans: c) Cyclizine
11. Atypical antipsychotic are all except:
a) Olanzepine
b) Clozapine
c) Risperidone
d) Thioridazone
Ans: d) Thioridazone
12. Most common drug causing dry mouth in elderly
a) antihistamines
b) Tranquilizers
c) OCP
d) Antipsychotics
Ans: a) antihistamines
13.Fenastride in prostate hyperplasia.....
a) Alpha blockade
b) 5 alpha hydroxyl inhibition
c) Alpha 1 reductase inhibitor
d) ……
Ans: b) 5 alpha hydroxyl inhibition
14.Nitrous oxide acts as analgesic by
a) Non specific CNS depression
b) Specific action on Trigeminal ganglion
c) Blocking trAnsmission
d) Block dopamine
Ans:
15. Most important factor for calculating dose of NSAIDs in children is
a) Age of child
b) Body weight of child
c) Flavor of salt
d) Extent of pain
Ans: b) Body weight of child
16. In behavior modification, what is the most common route for premedication?
a) Oral
b) Intramuscular
c) Subdermal
d) Intravenous
Ans:a) Oral
17 Most common route for conscious sedation?
a) Intravenous
b) Intradermal
c) Sub mucosal
d) Subdermal
Ans:
1. First drug to be used in absent seizures:
a) Phenytoin
b) Benzodiazepines
c) Valproate
d) Carbamazepine
Ans: c)Valproate
2. Loading dose depends on:
a) Volume of distribution
b) Clearance
c) Rate of administration
d) Half life
Ans: a)Volume of distribution
3. Drug not used in H. pylori:
a) Metronidazole
b) Omeprezole
c) Mosapride
d) Amoxicillin
Ans: c- Mosapride
4. Drug not used in H pylori
a) Metronidazole
b) Omeprazole
c) Oxytetracycline
d) Bismuth subcitrate
Ans:
5. Long acting beta-2 agonist?
a) Albuterol
b) Salmetarol
c) Pirlbuterol
d) Orciprenaline
Ans: b) Salmetarol
6. Benzodiazepine antagonist ?
a) Flumazenil
b) Naloxone
c) Furazolidone
d) Naltrexone
Ans: a) Flumazenil
7. Cross resistance of isoniazid is seen with:
a) Rifampicin
b) Ethionamide
c) Cycloserine
d) Ethambutol
Ans: b) Ethionamide
8. Which drug is not acetylated?
a) INH
b) Dapsone
c) Hydralazine
d) Metoclopropamide
Ans: d) Metoclopropamide
9.. Which is a prodrug?
a) Enalapril
b) Clonidine
c) Salmeterol
d) Acetazolamide
Ans: a) Enalapril
10.. Which is not a 2nd generation antihistaminic?
a) Loratidine
b) Acrivastatine
c) Cyclizine
d) ……….
Ans: c) Cyclizine
11. Atypical antipsychotic are all except:
a) Olanzepine
b) Clozapine
c) Risperidone
d) Thioridazone
Ans: d) Thioridazone
12. Most common drug causing dry mouth in elderly
a) antihistamines
b) Tranquilizers
c) OCP
d) Antipsychotics
Ans: a) antihistamines
13.Fenastride in prostate hyperplasia.....
a) Alpha blockade
b) 5 alpha hydroxyl inhibition
c) Alpha 1 reductase inhibitor
d) ……
Ans: b) 5 alpha hydroxyl inhibition
14.Nitrous oxide acts as analgesic by
a) Non specific CNS depression
b) Specific action on Trigeminal ganglion
c) Blocking trAnsmission
d) Block dopamine
Ans:
15. Most important factor for calculating dose of NSAIDs in children is
a) Age of child
b) Body weight of child
c) Flavor of salt
d) Extent of pain
Ans: b) Body weight of child
16. In behavior modification, what is the most common route for premedication?
a) Oral
b) Intramuscular
c) Subdermal
d) Intravenous
Ans:a) Oral
17 Most common route for conscious sedation?
a) Intravenous
b) Intradermal
c) Sub mucosal
d) Subdermal
Ans:
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