AIIMS 2008 Nov MDS

45. radiographic feature in gingivitis- normal bone
46. 8mm pocket- pseudo pocket
47. root # in the apical third of permanent teeth usually ------- vital n functional
48. trauma from occlusion least likely to affect------- epithelial attachment
49. adenoid odontogenic tumor called as-------- adenoameloblastoma
50. radicular cyst always asso. with.---------- non vital tooth
51. abrasion most common on--------------- maxillary arch left side
52. nitrous oxide nt used alone in GA------------- difficulty to maintain adequate O2 con.
53. floating tooth----cherubism
54. loading dose dependant on---vol of distribution
55. mode
56. koch's postulate
57. modification of koch's postulate
58. difference between etchant and gel
59. bone grafting done before canine extraction or after in cleft case
60. use of paired t test or unpaired in two groups
61. a tooth in which rct was started 2 yrs back , radiolucency does not resolve reason , curretage done
62. periapical radoioopacities around molar
63. patient on steriod therapy , whay would u give
64. in # mand part behind # line acts as
65. material which has high tensile strength but low compressive strength called
66. a girl using teething gel _ acrodynia?
67. mixture of 2.5% + 2.5% used in
68. gasserian block
69. mand block
70. eutectic mixture used in anesthesia of intact skin
71. injury which does not extend to dermis.... contusion
72. bilat. canine area fracture in md. is pushed backwards by action of muscles, ant belly digastric genioglossus geniohyoid
73. nt effective against MRSA clotrimaxazole
74. in penicillin allergic pt penicillin nd erythromycin nt given together why, erythromycin reduce d action of penicillin

75. tt. 4 a pt having badly carious left LI wid inability of opening left eye ,fluctuant swelling on
76. left side of face, fever.... incision and drainage
77. sorting of pt.of trauma on basis of need of care nd availability of resources....triage
78. prevention of long term widrawl effects of morphine
79. gingivoplasty nt req in all except ........ acute necrotising ulcerative gingivitis
80. organism absent in pdl diseases?????
81. semipermeable sulcular epi. leads 2 .... both of the above
82. multiple radiolucencies in 30 yr old lady due 2..?
83. GA cause rapid recovery wid max consciousness.?
84. muscle not originated from oblique line of thyroid....sup constrictor
85. t lymphocytes primarily do...produce lymphokine and .....
86. T2N0M0 signify stage 2 .

AIIMS 2008 NOV MDS

1. radioluceny at the apex of a vital tooth
2. radio opacity periapical
3. dentin conditioners
4. acid etch causes
5. 8 year old child with green stains
6. shape of access opening of mand moar with 4 canals
7. not a periodontal pathogen
8. most common developmental maxillary cyst
9. which is benzodiazepne antagonist
10. fluride from GIC reacts wid?
11. bleeding patient in emergency,
12. tongue control lost, maanagement?
13. mandibular fracture tension/ compression / rotation/ torsion?
14. DIFOTI use
15. gel used for etching not liquid y?
16. irregulr dentin ,interglobular dentin
17. etchant protected 4m entering pulp
18. radiopacity below3 month old amalgam restr.
19. .semipermeable sulcular epi. leads 2
20. multiple radiolucencies in 30 yr old lady due 2
21. floating teeth seen in
22. etching leads 2 reduction in
23. eutectic mixture used in
24. postoperative effect is minimum wid
25. oral pigmentation seen in
26. gingivoplasty nt req in all except
27. plaque contains
28. bilat. canine area fracture in md. is pushed backwards by action of muscles
29. nt effective against MRSA
30. in penicillin allergic pt penicillin nd erythromycin nt given together why
31. tt. 4 a pt having badly carious left LI wid inability of opening left eye ,fluctuant swelling on left side of face, fever
32. sorting of pt.of trauma on basis of need of care nd availability of resources
33. prevention of long term widrawl effects of morphine is prevented by
34. which GA cause rapid recovery wid max consciousness
35. muscle not originated from oblique line of thyroid
36. t lymphocytes primarily do
37. T2N0M0 signify stage 2
38. plaque contain-bacteria & food products,
39. infectious mononucleosis- ebv
40. suger found-sucrose
41. oral pigmentation-addison disease
42. avulsed tooth-wash with saline
43. painful socket- irrigation & medicated gauge
44. hair on end appearance-thallesemia

AIPGE 09 MDS Prosthodontics

Prosthodontics

208. Methods to reduce backpressure porosity
a) Vacuum investing
b) Increasing length of sprue
c) …
d) …
Ans:

AIPGE 09 MDS Oral & Maxillofacial Surgery

Oral & Maxillofacial Surgery

187. Lingual splaying will cause increase in
a) Interpupillary distance
b) Intercanthal distance
c) Interangle distance
d) Go – Gn distance

188. A condylar fracture with fragment overlap of >5mm and angle >37 degree needs what treatment?
a) Closed reduction and imf
b) ORIF
c) Soft diet only
d) No treatment
Ans:

189. When a mandibular fracture is transferred to an intensive care unit,under what is mandibular fracture treated
a) Primary survey
b) Secondary survey
c) Primary survey with IMF
d) Resuscitation room

190. When a minimal injury as a glancing blow is struck,to what variable is it related?
a) Position of strike
b) Area of strike
c) Angulation of strike
d) Location of strike
Ans:

191. According to the tension and compression forces acting at the condylar border which of these would best attenuate them?
a) A plate at the anterior border and another at the posterior border
b) A plate at the anterior border
c) A plate at the posterior border
d) A plate at the lateral border
Ans:

192. Treatment of comminuted fracture in angle of mandible
a) Multiple miniplates
b) Compression plates
c) Recontruction plates
d) Single miniplate which gives functional union
Ans: Reconstruction plates

193. Bone which fills in an osseous defect is
a) Spongy
b) Cancellous
c) Bundle
d) None
Ans:

194. What is the best treatment for a fractured angle mandible?
a )two plates as acc to AO principles
b)compression plating
c )reconstruction plates
d)
Ans:

195. The failure of IAN block can occur in children due to
a) Concentration of LA
b) Presence of adrenaline
c) Position of needle
d) Angle of ramus
Ans: d) Angle of ramus

196. Which of the following is not done as a investigation in osteosarcoma
a) MRI femur
b) Bone marrow biopsy
c) Bone scan
d) Xray chest
Ans:

197. Alveolar bone grafting in a cleft palate patient is done
a) After maxillary expansion, cross bite correction, before canine eruption
b) Before maxillary expansion cross bite correction after canine eruption
c) After maxillary expansion cross bite correction after canine eruption
d) Before maxillary expansion cross bite correction before canine eruption
Ans: a)After maxillary expansion, cross bite correction, before canine eruption


198. A pt is admitted with head injury, GCS = 8, maxillary fracture, frequent apnea and low oxygenation. Airway management is done by
a) Oropharyngeal airway
b) Orotracheal airway
c) Cricothyroidotomy
d) …
Ans: c) Cricothyroidotomy

199. Excisional biopsy is done by
a) Complete excision of the tumor along with some part of normal tissue
b) Partial excision of the tumor alone
c) Partial excision of the tumor with normal tissue
d) Complete excision of the tumor
Ans: a) Complete excision of the tumor along with some part of normal tissue

200. The bone present on the labial side of lower anteriors is
a) Cortical
b) Cancellous
c) Fibrous
d) Spongy
Ans: a) Cortical

201. The type of bone present between the furcations is
a)cortical
b)cancellous
c)fibrous
d)spongy
Ans: b) Cancellous

202. Champy plates
a) …
b) …
c) …
d) …
Ans:

203. Commonest impaction
a) Mesioangular
b) Distoangular
c) Vertical
d) Horizontal
Ans: Mesioangular

204. Which anesthetic is used intravenously
a) Propofol
b) …
c) …
d) …
Ans:

205. LA does not act in the presence of inflammation as LA solution molecules
a) Are positively charged
b) Are negatively charged
c) Not charged
d) …
Ans:

206. In mass trauma cases treatment priority given to
a) Those with life threatening conditions
b) Those who can be revived with minimum of resources and manpower
c) Those requiring maximum machinery and manpower
d) ….
Ans: b) Those who can be revived with minimum of resources and manpower

207. A patient is suffering from severe facial pain and a nasopharengeal tumor is present on the lateral wall of larynx.The patient is suffering from
a) Plummervinson syndrome
b) Trotters syndrome :ans
c) Reiters syndrome
d) …
Ans:

AIPGE 09 MDS Radiology

Radiology

177. When a child is not able 2 hold the IOPA film,who should hold it?
a) Dentist
b) Parent
c) Assisstant
d) Radiographer
Ans: b) Parent

178. Bisecting angle technique uses
a) Rule of Isometry
b) ALARA
c) SLOB
d) …
Ans: a) Rule of Isometry

179. Trapnell lines and McG.... lines are used in
a) True lateral
b) PA mandible
c) PNS view
d) …
Ans:

180. In a radiograph, the buccal root of max 1st premolar appears to be distal to the lingual root.The angulation of the cone was
a) Mesial to the premolar
b) Distal to the premolar
c) 10 degrees from above in a vertical angulation
d) 10 degrees from below in a vertical angulation
Ans: a) Mesial to the premolar

181.On the radiograph,the mesial aspect of a mandibular 1st molar, 2-3 mm bone loss is found.On probing, 6mm pocket is present.The difference is due to
a) Wrong angulation of radiograph
b) Facial and lingual bone superimposition
c) Mesial and buccal bone superimposition
d) Mesial and lingual bone superimposition
Ans:

182.On a radiograph, irregularities are found on the root area of lower incisors.It may be
a) Subgingival calculus
b) Root caries
c) …
d) …
Ans: a)Subgingival calculus

183. Best for detecting posterior proximal caries in children with minimum radiatn exposure is
a) bitewing with paralleling technique
b) bitewing with bisecting angle technique
c) bitewing with rvg
d) …
Ans:

184. Which of the following is identified only by radiographs?
a) Mental foramen
b) Apical cyst
c) PA granuloma
d) Chronic periodontitis
Ans: a) Mental foramen

185. Radiopacity at apex of a carious molar
a) Periapical granuloma
b) Condensing osteitis
c) Periapical cyst
d) …
Ans: Condensing osteitis

186. Radiographic appearance of periapical abscess in a primary molar as radiolucency
a) In the inter radicular area
b) Periapical area
c) Lateral to root
d) …
Ans: a) In the interradicular area

AIPGE 09 MDS Conservative Dentistry

Conservative Dentistry


150.Difference in tooth preparion for non carious Class V amalgam and composites
a) Depth of the cavity
b) Mesial and distal walls of the cavity
c) Placement of retentive grooves
d) Cavosurface margins
Ans: d) Cavosurface margins

151. To increase the efficiency of tungsten carbide bur
a) Should run only after touching the tooth
b) Run at high speed before touching the tooth
c) Run at low speed before touching the tooth
d) Run before entering the oral cavity
Ans: c) Run at low speed before touching the tooth

152. A mand.molar is restored with a gold inlay. Severe shooting pain is experienced when teeth come in contact. The cause is
a) Supraocclusion
b) Allergic reaction
c) Excess cement
d) Galvanism due to opposite amalgam restoration
Ans: d)Galvanism due to opposite amalgam restoration

153. Most imp bevel for gold inlay restoration is
a) Occlusal
b) Gingival
c) Axiopuplal
d) Axiofacial
Ans:

154. When pins are used in amalgam, strength of amalgam
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Same
d) ….
Ans: b)Decreases

155. Action of primer
a) Removal of smear layer
b) Increases surface free energy of dentin
c) Forms thin layer between collagen and resin
d) Bonds with composite
Ans:

156. Which is a wrong technique of placement of rubberdam
a) Place the clamp on tooth and insert the rubber dam
b) Place the dam over the clamp and then on tooth
c) Place the dam over the clamp and frame outside the oral cavity and then on tooth using a holder under the dam
d) Put holder over the dam
Ans:

157. Which is most difficult to diagnose
a) Necrosed pulp
b) Internal resorption
c) Chronic pulpitis
d) Acute apical abscess
Ans:

158. tev dek sutures used in endodontic microsurgery are removed in
a) 24-72 hrs
b) 72-96 hrs
c) 7 days
d)10 days
Ans:

159. Irreversible colonization of bacteria occurs in hw much time after enamel is exposed to bacteria?
a) 24 hrs
b) 1-2 hrs
c) 3-4 hrs
d) Immediately
Ans:

160. What lines become prominent after carious process?
a) Hunter schreger bands
b) Incremental lines of retzius
c) Incremental lines of pickerill
d) Incremental lines of von ebner
Ans: Incremental lines of retzius

161. Which is the best material for treatment of non-carious Class V cavities in unstable acid erosion cases?
a) GIC
b) RM-GIC
c) Compomer
d) Composite
Ans: d) Composite

162. Polymerization shrinkage of composite causes compression stress of
a) 1 mpa
b) 15 mpa
c) 5 mpa
d) 30 mpa
Ans:

163. In a tooth with gingival recession undergoing RCT, the gp cone is sealed at
a) Level of anatomic crown junction
b) 1 mm below gingival crest
c) 1mm below the opening of the canal
d) 1mm above the opening of the canal
Ans:

164. While applying temporary restoration to a tooth during a procedure, the thickness of temporary should be
a) 1mm
b) 2mm
c) 3mm
d) 4mm
Ans:

165. During application of rubber dam, following can be used as a lubricant except
a) Vaseline
b) Soapy water
c) Shaving cream
d) …
Ans: a) Vaselin

166. Root surface caries is caused by
a) Lactobacillus
b) Streptococcus viridans
c) Actinimyces
d) Streptococcus mutans
Ans: c) Actinomyces

167. Root surface caries is caused by(repeated)
a) Lactobacillus
b) Streptococcus viridans
c) Actinimyces
d) Streptococcus mutans
Ans: c) Actinomyces

168. On preparing the root canal with a protaper F2 file, 1mm of the GP cone is cut so as to fit the canal with friction.The diameter of the apical preparation is
a) 0.29mm
b) 0.30mm
c) 0.31mm
d) 0.33mm
Ans:

169. Before restoring a tooth with composite, the area is etched. Accidental contamination occurs with saliva.Then
a) The area is reetched before restoration
b) The area is air dried using an air spray and continue with restoring
c) Wipe the saliva with cotton and continue to restore
d) The area washed with waterspray airdried and reetched
Ans: d)The area washed with waterspray airdried and retched

170. Restorative material of choice for classV abfraction in anterior tooth
a) Microfilled composite
b) GIC
c) RMGIC
d) Compomer
Ans: a) Microfilled composite

171. Proximal caries in a tooth starts
a) Above the contact point
b) Gingival to the contact point and gingiva
c) Gingival to the contact point and occusal to the gingival crest
d) At the contact point
Ans: c) Gingival to the contact point and occusal to the gingival crest

172. On radiographic examination of a deep carious tooth,pulp appears to be nearly exposed.what would be the line of treatment
a)consider the tooth to be exposed and carry out RCT
b)place a sedative dressing and restore with amalgam
c)place a sedative dressing and plan for a pulpotomy procedure in the next appointment
d) ….
Ans: c)place a sedative dressing and plan for a pulpotomy procedure in the next appointment

173. The thickness of kalzynol when its used as a temporary restoration in a rootcanal treated tooth
a) 1mm
b) 2mm
c) 3mm
d) 4mm
Ans:

174. In the slide preparation of a normal tooth,the radiolucent area occupied by
a) Normal pulp
b) Internal resorption
c) Inflammed pulp
d) Necrosed pulp
Ans: a) Normal pulp

175. Application frequency of APF in a caries prone child
a) Twice a year
b) Four times a year
c) Once a year
d) …
Ans: a) Twice a year

176. A porcelain inlay with a facial wall is to be prepared.The cavity walls
a) Should converge facially
b) The depth of the cavity is increased more than that for an amalgam restoration
c) The walls are placed parallel to each other
d) …
Ans:

AIPGE 09 MDS General Surgery

General Surgery


139. A Patient with trauma suffers 15 % blood loss.
a) No treatment
b) Blood and colloidal transfusion
c) Colloidal transfusion only
d) Blood transfusion only
Ans: No treatment

140. In a deep wound, width is more than depth. It is
a) Stab wound
b) Slash
c) Laceration
d) Contaminated
Ans: b) Slash

141. Reactive arthritis is caused by
a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) H influenza
c) N. gonorrhoea
d) E coli
Ans:

142. Acute infection causes
a) Neutropenia
b) Leucopenia
c) Leucocytosis
d) …
Ans:

143. DLC is used for assessment of
a) Eosinophilia
b) Anemia
c) Leukocytosis
d) Leucopenia
Ans: a) Eosinophilia

144. Head ache of vascular origin are all except
a) Giant cell arteritis
b) Anesthesia dolorosa
c) Cluster head ache
d) Hemicrania

145. SABE of dental origin is caused by
a) Streptococcus viridans
b) Actinomyces
c) Streptococcus mutans
d) Streptococcus salivarius
Ans: a) Streptococcus viridans

146. A 9yr old child presents with generalized ulceration, fever, malaise, ulcers around the mouth.Treatment is
a) Symptomatic treatment and observation
b) Prescribe broad spectrum penicillin and mouthwash
c) Clean the mouth with a gentle mouthwash
d) …
Ans: a) Symptomatic treatment and observation

147. Which of the following increases turbulence in blood flow?
a) Reynolds number less than 2000
b) When velocity is decreased
c) When density of blood decreases
d) When diameter of blood vessel increases
Ans:

148.Facial nerve damage associated with
a) Transverse fracture of petrous temporal
b) Longitudinal fracture of petrous temporal
c) associated with csf otorhea
d) …
Ans: a) Transverse fracture of petrous temporal

149. Most common cause of pulmonary embolism
a) Lymphangitis
b) Endarteritis
c) Thrombophlebitis
d) …
Ans: c) Thrombophlebitis

AIPGE 09 MDS Periodontics

Periodontics

115.Attached gingiva
a) Always stippled
b) Resistant to masticatory stress and forces
c) Highly prone to infection
d) …..
Ans: b) Resistant to masticatory stress and forces

116.Dental floss is used for cleaning which type of embrasures
a) Type 1
b) Type 2
c) Type 3
d) All
Ans: a) Type 1

117. Gingival fibers which run between two teeth are
a) Transeptal fibers
b) Trans gingival
c) Oblique
d) Apical
Ans: a) Transeptal fibers

118. Which condition can be diagnosed only with radiograph
a) Periodontal abscess
b) Bifurcation involvement
c) Anatomical length of tooth
d) Periapical granuloma
Ans: c) Anatomical length of tooth

119. Periapical and periodontal abscess can be differentiated by
a) Probing
b) Radiograph
c) Histopathology
d) …
Ans:

120. Radiograph helps in the identification of
a) Depth of bone loss
b) Shape of the bony defect
c) Extent of bone loss
d) None
Ans:

121. Irreversible colonization of bacteria occurs in how much time after enamel is exposed to bacteria?
a) 24 hrs
b) 1-2 hrs
c) 3-4 hrs
d) Immediately
Ans: b) 1-2 hrs

122. Gingivosis is related most commonly to
a ) High progesterone
b) Low estrogen and testosterone
c) Pregnancy
d) …
Ans:

123.Periodontometer is used for
a) Tooth mobility
b) Periodontal pocket
c) GCF
d) Halitosis
Ans: a)Tooth mobility

124. What change occurs with time in supragingival plaque
a) Increase plaque mass
b) Becomes more G+ve
c) Becomes more G-ve
d) More spirochetal
Ans: b) Becomes more G-ve

125. First clinical sign of TFO
a) Tooth mobility
b) Wear facets
c) Bone loss
d) ……
Ans:a) tooth mobility

126. Green stains on tooth is caused by
a) Chromogenic bacteria
b) Lysis of neutrophils
c) Materia alba
d) ….
Ans: a) Chromogenic bacteria

127. In chronic marginal gingivitis, radiographic changes are
a) Horizontal bone loss
b) Vertical bone loss
c) Angular bone loss
d) None
Ans: d) None

128. Colour of subgingival calculus due to
a) Change in ph
b) RBC hemolysis
c) Leukocyte destruction
d) All of the above
Ans: b) RBC hemolysis

129. To measure periodontitis in a large population, what is used
a) Gingival index
b) Periodontal index
c) Plaque index
d) …
Ans:

130. Smoking is a predisposing factor to
a) ANUG
b) Juvenile periodontitis
c) Lichen planus
d) Hepatitis
Ans: ANUG

131. Juvenile periodontitis is due to
a) Decreased phagocytosis
b) Defect in neutrophil chemotaxic activity
c) …
d) …
Ans: b) Defect in neutrophil chemotaxic activity

132. Interdental col is susceptible to periodontal diseases due to
a) Non keratinized epithelium
b) It is difficult to clean
c) Highly prone to plaque accumulation
d) All the above
Ans: d) All of the above

133. true abt primary teeth
a)all calcify before birth
b)all primary n perm. incisors calcify before birth

134. Delayed hypersensitivity is found in periodontal infections due to
a) Sensitized T-lymphocyte to bacterial plaque
b) B lymphocyte
c) Immunoglobulins….
d) Immunecomplexes…..
Ans: a)Sensitized T-lymphocyte to bacterial plaque

135. Delayed hypersensitivity is found in periodontal infections due to [Repeat]
a) Sensitized T-lymphocyte to bacterial plaque
b) B lymphocyte
c) Immunoglobulins…..
d) All of the above
Ans: a)Sensitized T-lymphocyte to bacterial plaque


136.The difference between supragingival and subgingival calculus is the composition of supragingival calculus
a)
b) Plaque bacterial mass
c) Gm – ve organisms predominant
d) …
Ans: a) Varies with the intake of diet

137. A tooth has apical migration of epithelial attachment.Along with it gingival recession occurs.The tooth has
a) Shallow sulcus
b) Periodontal pocket
c) Gingival pocket
d) …
Ans:

138. Organism not seen in periodontal disease
a) Velionella
b) Fusobacterium
c) Neisseria
d) Spirochaets
Ans: c) Neisseria

AIPGE 09 MDS General medicine

General medicine

106. Cells that are not found in lungs
a) Brush
b) Clara
c) Kulchisky
d) Langerhan
Ans: d) Langerhan

107. Radiographic feature of sinusitis includes:
a) Fluid level
b) Erosion of bone
c) Clouding of antra
d) Fluid level and clouding
Ans: d) Fluid level and clouding

108.In autism,
a) Incapacitance of motor and mental coordination
b) Mental retardation
c) Lack of motor skills
Ans: a) Incapacitance of motor and mental coordination

109. Which is seen in acromegaly
a) Large tongue
b) Hypoglycemia
c) Crowding of tooth
d) ……
Ans:a) Large tongue

110. One yr old child is suffering from asthma.Treatment is
a) Short acting beta 2 agonist
b) Inhalational steroid
c) Sustained slow release theophylline
d)
Ans:

111.Cats eye syndrome
a) Partial trisomy 21
b) Partial trisomy 22
c) Partial trisomy 13
d) Partial trisomy 18

112. Phlegmon is
a) Type of cellulites
b) STD
c) …
d) …
Ans: a) Type of cellulites

113. True about polio
a) Paralytic polio is most common
b) Spastic paralysis
c) Increased muscular activity leads to increased paralysis
d) Pulse polio immunization given <3 years using inactivated polio virus
Ans:

114. Benedict syndrome
a) …
b) …
c) …
d) …
Ans:

AIPGE 09 MDS Oral pathology

Oral pathology


69.Commonest site of keratoacanthoma
a) Lip
b) Palate
c) Buccal mucosa
d) Tongue
Ans: a) Lip

70. Moth eaten app is seen in all except
a) Osteomyelitis
b) Haemorrhagic cyst
c) OKC
d) Osteosarcoma
Ans okc

71. Ehler danlos syndrome is
a) Autosomal dominant,
b) Autosomalecessive
c) X linked dominant
d) X linked recessive
Ans a) Autosomal dominant,

72. Nasoalveolar cyst is also known as
a) Kledstadt cyst
b) Bohns nodules
c) Epstein pearls
Ans: a)Kledstadt cyst

73. Most common tumor of parotid gland
a) Pleomorphic adenoma
b) Warthins tumor
c) Adenoidcystic carcinoma
Ans: a) Pleomorphic adenoma

74. White radiating lines on the buccal mucosa are seen in
a) Lichen planus
b) Leucoplakia
c) WSN
d) Leukedema
Ans: a)Lichen planus

75.Chronic burrowing ulcer of skin is caused by
a) Microaerophillus streptococcus
b) Streptococcus pyogenes
c) Peptostreptococcus
d) Streptococcus Viridans
Ans: a) Microaerophillus streptococcus

76. Dentinogenesis imperfecta is a
a) Autosomal dominant
b) Autosomal recessive
c) X linked dominant
d) X linked recessive
Ans: a)autosomal dominant

77. The disorder characterised by craniosynostosis and preaxial polysyndactyly of feet. soft tissue syndactyly is also present.
a) Carpenter syndrome
b) Crouzon syndrome
c) Apert syndrome
Ans: a) Carpenter syndrome

78. In Millard Gubler syndrome all are involved except:
a) 5th cranial nerve
b) 6th cranial nerve
c) 7th cranial nerve
d) Contralateral hemiplegia
Ans:

79. An infant with cleft lip, cleft palate, polydactly, microcephaly with holoprosencephaly, ectodermal scalp defect is suffering from:
a) Trisomy 21
b) Trisomy 18
c) Trisomy 13
d) Turner syndrome
Ans: c) Trisomy 13

80. Staghorn pattern seen in
a) Hemangiopericytoma
b) …
c) …
d) …
Ans: a) Hemangiopericytoma

81. A patient is suffering from severe facial pain and a nasopharyngeal tumor is present on the lateral wall of larynx. The patient is suffering from
a) Plummervinson syndrome
b)Trotters syndrome
c) Reiters syndrome
Ans: b) Trotters syndrome

82. Rushton bodies are seen in
a) Periapical cyst
b) Periapical granuloma
c) Dentigerous cyst
Ans: a) Periapical cyst

83. Most common site of occurrence of sialolith is in
a) Parotid gland
b) Sublingual gland
c) Submandibular gland
Ans: c) Submandibular gland

84. A mid aged female patient has eyes widely placed, sparse hair, increased systolic BP, increased pulse pressure, weight loss and nervousness. She may be suffering from
a) Hyperthyroidism
b) Hypothyroidism
c) Hyperparathyroidism
d) Hypopituitarism
Ans a) Hyperthyroidism

85. Mosaic pattern of bone is seen in
a) Fibrous dysplasia
b) Osteitis deformans
c) Osteomyelitis
d) Ewings sarcoma
Ans: b) Osteitis deformans

86. Ground glass appearance of bone in a radiograph is seen in
a) Hyperparathyroidism,
b) Hyperthyroidism
c) Hypothyroidism
d)Hypoparathyroidism
Ans: a)Hyperparathyroidism

87. An 8yr old boy comes to your clinic with a chief complaint of large and jagged front teeth.Treatment would be
a) Trim the teeth and apply fluoride varnish to prevent sensitivity
b) Build the other teeth to the same size
c) Extract the teeth
d) Reassure the child and send him home.
Ans: d) Reassure the child and send him home

88. A bluish purple swelling is present behind a lower primary second molar in a 6yr old child.Treatment is
a) No treatment.only observation
b) Injecting proteolytic solution in the area
c) Surgical excision of the flap
Ans: a)No treatment.only observation

89. In a patient with cerebral palsy, all are seen except
a) Increased dental caries
b) Fluorosis
c) Increased salivation
d) Trauma
Ans: b) Fluorosis

90. Excess ingestion of fluorides is absorbed by the intestines. It is excreted by
a) Kidney
b) Lung
c) Liver
d) Saliva
Ans: a) Kidney

91. Rhabdomyosarcoma is a disorder of
a) Smooth muscle
b) Striated muscle
c) Cardiac muscle
d) Epithelium
Ans: b) Striated muscle

92. Apatient with severely discolored teeth, fractured enamel, undefined DEJ, severe attrition has
a) Severe flourosis
b) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
c) Amelogenesis imperfecta
d) Dentin dysplasia
Ans: b) Dentinogenesis imperfecta

93. Most common malignancy in AIDS
a) Kaposis
b) Hodgkins lymphoma
c) SCC
d) Non hodgkins lymphoma

94. Radiographic feature of sinusitis includes:
a) Fluid level
b) Erosion of bone
c) Clouding of antra
d) Fluid level and clouding
Ans: d) Fluid level and clouding

95.Saw tooth rete pegs seen in
a) Lichen planus
b) Leukoplakia
c) Leukedma
d) WSN
Ans: a) Lichen planus

96. The difference in epithelial lining of cyst and oral cavity
a) Stratum germinatum
b) Stratum corneum
c) Stratum spinosum
d) Stratum incidium
Ans: a) Stratum germinatum

97. Neonatal teeth are seen
a) Erupt within 30days of birth
b) At birth
c) Erupt in 6months
d) …
Ans: a) Erupt within 30 days of birth

98. Geniculate neuralgia associated with
a) Facial nerve
b) Trigeminal nerve
c)glossopharyngeal nerve
d) Vagus nerve
Ans: a)Facial nerve

99.Moth eaten appearance is seen in all except
a) Osteomyelitis
b) Haemorrhagic cyst
c) OKC
d) Osteosarcoma
Ans:

100. Movement of jaw with opening of eyes occur in
a) Jaw winking syndrome
b) …
c) …
d) …
Ans: a) Jaw winking syndrome

101. A periapical granuloma and periapical abscess can be differenciated by
a) Radiograph
b) Vitality
c) Clinically
d) Histopathologically
Ans: d) Histopathologically

102. Juvenile periodontitis caused by
a) Gram negative aerobes
b) Gram negative anaerobes
c) Facultative anaerobes
d) Aerobes
Ans: b)Gram negative anaerobes

103. Monocytosis
a) Hodgkins disease
b) Multiple myloma
c) …
d) …
Ans:

1044. Hypoplasia of permanent tooth caused by local injury to primary tooth
a) Turners hypoplasia
b) …
c) …
d) …
Ans:

105. True among following
a) All primary teeth calcify before birth
b) All primary and permanent molars calcify before birth
c) All primary and permanent incisors and molars calcify before birth
d) All primary and permanent canines calcify before birth
Ans: a)All primary teeth calcify before birth

AIPGE 09 MDS Community dentistry

Community dentistry


58. In national water supply and sanitation programme a “problem village” is defined as all except
a) Distance of safe water is within 1.5 kms
b) Watertable below….kms
c) Water source has excess iron and heavy metals
d) Water infested with guinea worm
Ans: d) Distance of safe water within 1.5 Kms

59. A sampling unit refers to
a) Group of sample
b) Subset of sample
c) Every individual of a sample
d) All
Ans: c) Every individual of a sample

60. In a set of observations the relative variability
a) Coefficient of variance
b) Standard deviation
c) Standard error
d) …
Ans: a) Coefficient of variance

61. Which of the following is an example of disability limitation?
a) Reducing occurrence of polio by immunization
b) Arranging for schooling of child suffering from PRPP
c) Resting affected limbs in neutral position
d) Providing calipers for walking
Ans: c) Resting affected limbs in neutral position

62. Which of these represent a normal distribution?
a) When all data is distributed equally in a whole group
b) When mode, median and mean coincide
c) When positives are two times the negatives
d) When positives are four times the negatives
Ans: b) When mode, median and mean coincide


63. Specificity of a screening test measures
a) True positives
b) False positives
c) False negatives
d) True negatives
Ans: True negatives

64. In a study in UK, an association was found between increased sale of antiasthmatic drug and an increase in deaths due to asthma. This is an example of
a) Ecological study
b) Cohort study
c) Case reference study
d) Experimental study
Ans: a) Ecological study

65. Occupational cancer involve following organs except:
a) Lung
b) Breast
c) Bladder
d) Liver
Ans: b) Breast

66. A periodontal index is used to check the status of periodontal disease in a survey. Each tooth surface is divided into 9 parts in the index. It is
a) Navy plaque index
b) Glass index
c) Stillness and loe index
d) PHP index
Ans: a) Navy plaque index

67. Most common cause of female mortality in India during childbirth
a) Hemorrhage
b) Abortion
c) Anemia
d) Sepsis
Ans: a) Hemorrhage

68. Adjuvant used in DPT vaccine is
a) Zinc
b) Aluminum
c) Copper
d) Magnesium
Ans: b) Aluminum

AIPGE 09 MDS Microbiology

48. True about mycobacterium other than tuberculosis (MOTT)
a) Causes disseminated infection
b) Occurs in persons with normal immunity
c) Causes decreased efficacy of BCG due to cross immunity
d) Person to person trAnsmission is seen
Ans:

49. Life cycle of filaria is
a) Cyclodevelopmental
b) Cyclopropagative
c) Propagative
d) Tran ovarian
Ans: a) Cyclodevelopmental

50. Herpangina is caused by
a) Coxsackie virus
b) HSV
c) HBV
d) EBV
Ans: a)Coxsackie virus

51. TRUE among the following:
a) Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is used by inhalation of rodent urine and feces
b) Kyanasur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal
c) Lyssa virus is trAnsmitted by ticks
d) ……
Ans: a) Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is used by inhalation of rodent urine and feces

Dental materials

52. Purpose of indium in amalgam
a) Eliminate gamma phase
b) Eliminate gamma-2 phase
c) Decrease Hg release on mastication
d) Decrease Hg release on abrasion
Ans

53. Bonding of GIC to tooth structure is brought about by
a) Metal ions
b) Hydroxyl bond
c) Carboxyl bond
Ans

54: Order of setting of GIC is
a) Gelation, migration, post setting contraction
b) …
c) …
d) …
Ans:

55. Action of primer
a) Removal of smear layer
b) Increases surface free energy of dentin
c) Forms thin layer between collagen and resin
d) Bonds with composite
Ans:

56. Polymerization shrinkage of composite causes compression stress of
a) 1 mpa
b) 15mpa
c) 5 mpa
d) 30 mpa
Ans:

57. To increase the efficiency of tungsten Carbide bur
a) Should run only after touching the tooth
b) Run at high speed before touching the tooth
c) Run at low speed before touching the tooth
d) Run before entering the oral cavity
Ans: c) Run at low speed before touching the tooth

AIPGE 09 MDS Physiology

Physiology

38. In an obese person, BMI is
a) >10
b) >20
c) >30
d) >40
Ans: c) >30

39. Which of the following increases turbulence in blood flow?
a) Reynolds number less than 2000
b) When velocity is decreased
c) When density of blood decreases
d) When diameter of blood vessel increases
Ans:

40. Pulmonary circulation differs from systemic circulation
a) Pulmonary vasodilatation in hypoxia
b) Pulmonary vasoconstriction in hypoxia
c) Decreased blood volume during systole
d) Increased basal vasoconstrictor tone
Ans: b) Pulmonary vasoconstriction in hypoxia

41. Plasmocytoma of B cell origin is
a) Hodgkin’s lymphoma
b) Plasmocytoma
c) Multiple Myeloma
d) Non hodgkins lymphoma
Ans: c) Multiple myeloma

42. Increase in threshold level on applying sub threshold, slowly rising stimulus is known as
a) Adaptation
b) Accommodation
c) Refractoriness
d) Electrotronus
Ans: Accomodation

43. Which deficiency affects tooth development?
a) Vit. A
b) Carbohydrates
c) Vit. E
d) Vit B
Ans: Vit A

44: In compression osteosynthesis bone heals by
a) Primary union
b) Secondary union
c) Tertiary union
Ans: a) Primary union

45. A paradoxical movement of chest during inspiration and expiration in a patient who has suffered trauma
a) Frail chest
b) Cardiac tamponade
c) Dyspnoea
d) Pneumothorax
Ans:

46. When a minimal injury as a glancing blow is struck, to what variable is it related?
a) Position of strike
b) Area of strike
c) Angulations of strike
d) Location of strike
Ans:

47. In hemophilia, the drug administered before a surgical procedure is
a) Vitamin K
b) Aspirin
c) Epsilon caproic acid
d) Chloral hydrate
Ans; c) Epsilon caproic acid

AIPGE 09 MDS Anatomy

Anatomy


27. Which is not a branch of cavernous part of internal carotid artery?
a) Cavernous branch
b) Inferior hypophyseal
c) Meningeal artery
d) Ophthalmic artery
Ans: d) Ophthalmic artery ooooooooo

28. Which of the following supplies capsule of TMJ
a) Facial nerve
b) Maxillary nerve
c) Auriculotemporal nerve
d) Mandibular nerve
Ans: c) Auriculotemporal nerveoooooooooo

29. Regarding Golgi tendon organ true is
a) Senses dynamic length of muscle
b) Involved in reciprocal innervation
c) Alpha-motor neuron stimulation
d) Senses muscle tension
Ans: d) Senses muscle tension ooooooooo

30. Not a tributary of cavernous sinus
a) Superficial middle cerebral vein
b) Deep petrosal sinus
c) Inferior petrosal sinus
d) Superior petrosal sinus
Ans: a) Superficial middle cerebral vein

31. Sensory branch of mandibular nerve is
a) Mylohyoid
b) Lingual
c) Long buccal
d) Buccal nerve
Ans: d) Long buccal nerve

32. Motor supply of tongue is by
a) Hypoglossal
b) Glossopharyngeal
c) Vagus
d) Facial
Ans: a) Hypoglossal

33. What is the type of joints between ossicles of ear
a) Fibrous joint
b) Primary cartilaginous
c) Secondary cartilaginous
d) Synovial joint
Ans: d) Synovial joint

34. All r composite muscle except
a) Pectineus
b) Rectus femris
c) Adductor magnus
d) Biceps femoris
Ans: b) Rectus femris

35. When does TMJ start developing in utero
a) 2nd week
b) 10th week
c) 20th week
d) 29 week
Ans: b)10th week

36. Premature synostis of coronal suture along with basal sutures is seen in
a) Oxycephaly
b) b\Brachycephaly
c) Trigonocephaly
d) Scandamocephaly
Ans: a) Oxycephaly

37. Not a digastric muscle
a) Occipitofrontalis
b) Sternocleidomastoid
c)
d)
Ans: b) Sternocleidomastoid

AIPGE 09 MDS Biochemistry

Biochemistry

18. True about denaturation of proteins are all except:
a) Unfolding occurs
b) Disruption of secondary structure occurs
c) Sequence of amino acids remain the same
d) Biological activity is retained
Ans: d) Biological activity is retained ooooooooo

19. Insulin causes lipogenesis by all except:
a) Increasing acetyl-CoA carboxylase activity
b) Increases the trAnsport of glucose into the cells
c) Inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase
d) Decreases intracellular cAMP level
Ans: c) Inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase

20. True about G protein coupled receptors is:
a) G proteins bind to hormones on the cell surface
b) All the three subunits alpha, beta and gamma should bind each other G protein to act
c) G proteins act as inhibitory and excitatory because of difference in alpha subunit
d) G protein is bound to GTP in resting state
Ans: c) G proteins act as inhibitory and excitatory because of difference in alpha subunit ooooooo

21. Thiamine deficiency causes decreased energy production because
a) It is required for the process of transamination
b) It is co-factor in oxidative reduction
c) It is co-enzyme for transketolase in pentose phosphate pathway
d) It is co-enzyme for pyruvate dehydrogenase
Ans: d) It is co-enzyme for pyruvate dehydrogenase

22. All are true about glutathione except:
a) It is a tripeptide
b) It converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin
c) It conjugates xenobiotics
d) It scavenges free radicals and superoxide ions
Ans: b) It converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin oooooo

23. In molecular cloning, Blue-white screening is used for:
a) To screen for recombinant vectors
b) To detect gene mutations
c) To identify desired chromosomal DNA insert in plasmid vectors
d) To detect host DNA in situ
Ans: c) To identify desired chromosomal DNA insert in plasmid vectors

24. Steroid hormone receptors have attachment site for all except:
a) Steroid hormone
b) Transcription repressors
c) Hormone responsive element
d) Transcription activators
Ans: b) Transcription repressors

25. Why fetal cells continue to divide but terminally differentiated adult do not divide
a) There are many cyclin inhibitors which prevent cell to enter into S phase in adult
b) Phosphatase absent in fetal cells
c) Proteinase is absent in fetus
d) Absence of CD kinase
Ans:

26. All are true about glutathione except:
a) It is a tripeptide
b) It converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin
c) It conjugates xenobiotics
d) It scavenges free radicals and superoxide ions
Ans: It converts methhemoglobin to hemoglobin

AIPGE 09 MDS Pharmacology

Pharmacology

1. First drug to be used in absent seizures:
a) Phenytoin
b) Benzodiazepines
c) Valproate
d) Carbamazepine
Ans: c)Valproate

2. Loading dose depends on:
a) Volume of distribution
b) Clearance
c) Rate of administration
d) Half life
Ans: a)Volume of distribution

3. Drug not used in H. pylori:
a) Metronidazole
b) Omeprezole
c) Mosapride
d) Amoxicillin
Ans: c- Mosapride

4. Drug not used in H pylori
a) Metronidazole
b) Omeprazole
c) Oxytetracycline
d) Bismuth subcitrate
Ans:

5. Long acting beta-2 agonist?
a) Albuterol
b) Salmetarol
c) Pirlbuterol
d) Orciprenaline
Ans: b) Salmetarol

6. Benzodiazepine antagonist ?
a) Flumazenil
b) Naloxone
c) Furazolidone
d) Naltrexone
Ans: a) Flumazenil

7. Cross resistance of isoniazid is seen with:
a) Rifampicin
b) Ethionamide
c) Cycloserine
d) Ethambutol
Ans: b) Ethionamide

8. Which drug is not acetylated?
a) INH
b) Dapsone
c) Hydralazine
d) Metoclopropamide
Ans: d) Metoclopropamide

9.. Which is a prodrug?
a) Enalapril
b) Clonidine
c) Salmeterol
d) Acetazolamide
Ans: a) Enalapril

10.. Which is not a 2nd generation antihistaminic?
a) Loratidine
b) Acrivastatine
c) Cyclizine
d) ……….
Ans: c) Cyclizine

11. Atypical antipsychotic are all except:
a) Olanzepine
b) Clozapine
c) Risperidone
d) Thioridazone
Ans: d) Thioridazone

12. Most common drug causing dry mouth in elderly
a) antihistamines
b) Tranquilizers
c) OCP
d) Antipsychotics
Ans: a) antihistamines

13.Fenastride in prostate hyperplasia.....
a) Alpha blockade
b) 5 alpha hydroxyl inhibition
c) Alpha 1 reductase inhibitor
d) ……
Ans: b) 5 alpha hydroxyl inhibition

14.Nitrous oxide acts as analgesic by
a) Non specific CNS depression
b) Specific action on Trigeminal ganglion
c) Blocking trAnsmission
d) Block dopamine
Ans:

15. Most important factor for calculating dose of NSAIDs in children is
a) Age of child
b) Body weight of child
c) Flavor of salt
d) Extent of pain
Ans: b) Body weight of child

16. In behavior modification, what is the most common route for premedication?
a) Oral
b) Intramuscular
c) Subdermal
d) Intravenous
Ans:a) Oral

17 Most common route for conscious sedation?
a) Intravenous
b) Intradermal
c) Sub mucosal
d) Subdermal
Ans:

AIIMS Nov 2007 Test Paper

ANATOMY
1. Which one of the following is a junction of frontal, parietal, temporal & greater wing of sphenoid bone?
A. Pterion
B. Lambda
C. Vertex
D. Inion.
1. Answer is: A- Pterion.
(Ref: B.D.Chaurasia- 3rd Vol- 3rd Ed/ pg 7). Repeat AIPG-06.
2. A non-synovial joint with dense connective tissue between two bony surfaces is termed as:
A. Synchondrosis
B. Syndesmosis
C. Symphysis
D. Suture.
2. Answer is: D- Suture.
(Ref: Gray’s Anatomy- 39th Ed/ pg 103).
PHYSIOLOGY
3. Lysis of fibrin is brought about by:
A. Plasmin
B. Hyaluronidase
C. Collagenase
D. Coagulase
3. Answer is: A- Plasmin.
(Ref. K.D. Tripathi-5th Ed/ Pg 569)
4. Normal hemoglobin in adults is designated as:
A. Hb H
B. Hb S
C. Hb A
D. Hb F
4. Answer is: C- Hb A.
(Ref: Ganong 18th Ed / 497)
5. Which one of the following is true after exercise?
A. Cerebral blood flow increases if there is an increase in systolic blood pressure.
B. Blood flow to muscle increases in 30 seconds.
C. Body temperature increases.
D. Lymphatic flow to the muscle decreases.
5. Answer is: C- Body temperature increases.
(Ref: Ganong 18th Ed / 588-90)
6. Which one of the following statements is true when a normal person lies down?
A. The heart rate settles above that of normal.
B. There is an immediate increase in the venous return.
C. Cerebral blood flow increases.
D. Blood flow to apex of the lung decreases.
6. Answer is: B- There is an immediate increase in the venous return.
(Ref: Ganong 18th / 587)

7. A complex factor mucopolysaccharide present in lung and liver that also prevents coagulation of blood is:
A. Heparin.
B. Plasmin
C. Acetylsalicylic acid.
D. Histamine.
7. Answer is: A- Heparin.
(Ref: K.D. Tripathi 5th / 561)
8. About Nitric oxide all of the following is true except:
A. It causes penile erection.
B. It acts via c-AMP.
C. It decreases the vasomotor tone.
D. It is present in cigarette smoke.
8. Answer is: B-It acts via cyclic-AMP.
(Ref: Harper 24th Ed / 699. KDT 5th Ed / 489)
BIOCHEMISTRY
9. Poly Unsaturated Fatty Acids are present in all of the following except:
A. Mustard oil
B. Corn oil
C. Ground nut oil.
D. Fish oil.
9. Answer is: A-Mustard Oil.
(Ref: Park 16th / Page 407)
10. Iron is present in all of the following except:
A. Myoglobin.
B. Catalase.
C. Cytochrome.
D. Pyruvate kinase.
10. Answer is: D- Pyruvate kinase
(Ref: Park -11th Ed /Pg 449) Repeat AIPG-06
11. Enzyme that regulates the conversion of ethanol to acetaldehyde is:
A. Alcohol dehydrogenase.
B. Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase.
C. Catalase.
D. Xanthene oxidase.
11. Answer is: A- Alcohol dehydrogenase.
(Ref. K.D.T. 5th / 351)
12. Which of the following enzyme at a pH of 8.6 has a function in bone mineralization and hydrolysis of phosphoric esters?
A. Acid phosphatase.
B. Alkaline phosphatase.
C. Collagenase.
D. Hyaluronidase.
12. Answer is: B- Alkaline phosphatase.
(Ref. Harper 24th Ed / Page 680)
13. Amino acid residue used in detection of strength of Collagen:
A. Proline
B. Hydroxyproline
C. Glycine
D. Hydroxyglycine.
13. Answer is: B- Hydroxyproline.
(Ref: Harper 24th / 669)
DENTAL MATERIALS
14. The angle between adhesive & adherent is zero degree. This indicates:
A. Rough surface between adhesive & adherent.
B. Presence of irregularities between the adherent surfaces.
C. Complete wetting of the surfaces.
D. Molecules of adhesive & adherent are at a tangent to each other.
14. Answer is: C- Complete wetting of surfaces
(Ref: Phillips-11th Ed/Pg 37, Phillips-10th Ed/Pg 28) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
15. Which of the following is true regarding lathe cut silver alloy?
A. Has low creep.
B. Requires least amount of mercury.
C. Has tensile strength, both at 15 mins & 7 days comparable to high copper Unicompositional alloys.
D. Achieves lowest compressive strength at 1 hour.
15. Answer is: D- Achieves lowest compressive strength at 1 hour.
(Ref: Craig, Restorative dental materials-11th Ed/Pg 295-97) Repeat AIPG-06.
16. Which of the following is true regarding corrosion of Amalgam restoration?
A. It can extend upto a depth of 100-500 microns.
B. Decreases if tin content of alloy decreases.
C. Is promoted by gamma phase of alloy particles.
D. Is resisted most by cooper-tin phase in high copper amalgam.
16. Answer is: A- It can extend upto a depth of 100-500 microns.
(Ref: Craig-10th Ed/Pg 222; Sturdevant 4th/ Pg 154) Repeat AIPG-06.
17. Over-trituration of silver & mercury causes:
A. Reduction in contraction.
B. Increases strength in lathe cut but reduces strength in spherical alloy.
C. Gives a dull & crumbly amalgam mix.
D. Decreases the creep.
17. Answer is: B- Increases the strength of lathe-cut alloy but reduces the strength of spherical alloy amalgam.
(Ref: Craig 10th/226, 227) Repeat AIPG-06
18. Poisson’s ratio is:
A. Lateral strain by axial strain within elastic limit.
B. Equal to flexural strength.
C. Is more in amalgam.
D. Is low for gold alloy.
18. Answer is: A- Lateral strain by axial strain within elastic limit.
(Ref. Craig 10th Ed / 66, Skinner 11th Ed / 85)
19. Strain is:
A. New length upon original length after a load is applied.
B. Original length upon new length after a load is applied.
C. Force applied to change the length.
D. Difference between the two lengths upon original length.
19. Answer is: D- Difference between the two lengths upon original length.
(Ref: Skinner 11th / 73 & 74; Craig 10th / 66)
MICROBIOLOGY
20. Most commonly used selective medium for Streptococcus mutans is:
A. MacConkey’s medium.
B. Mitis-Salivarius-Bacitracin agar.
C. Nutrient agar.
D. Tellurite medium
20. Answer is: B- Mitis salivarius bacitracin agar.
(Ref: Soben Peter 2nd / 375) Repeat AIPG-06
PATHOLOGY
21. All of the following is true about Cerebral edema except:
A. Can result in herniation of the brain from foramen magnum.
B. Results from increased lymphatic drainage.
C. Results in an increase in intracranial pressure.
D. Can result from an increase in plasma protein concentration.
21. Answer is: B- Results from increased lymphatic drainage.
(Ref: Kumar-Cotran-Robbin’s-7th Ed/ Pg 811)
22. Apoptosis is suggestive of:
A. Coagulative necrosis.
B. Liquefactive degeneration.
C. Neoangiogenesis.
D. Epithelial dysplasia.
22. Answer is: B- Liquefactive degeneration.
(Ref: Kumar-Cotran-Robbin’s-7th Ed/ Pg 811) Repeat AIPG-06.
PHARMACOLOGY
23. Long term use of Aspirin causes:
A. Decreased platelet adhesion.
B. Decrease in fibrinogen formation.
C. Hypoprothrombinemia.
D. None of the above.
23. Answer is: C- Hypoprothrombinemia.
(Ref: K.D.T. 5th / 172 &159)
24. Which of the following is true about Benzodiazepines?
A. In higher quantities, it is relatively safer than other hypnotics.
B. Alters the sleep pattern to a great extent.
C. Stimulates hepatic metabolic enzymes.
D. All have metabolically active substrates.
24. Answer is: A- In Higher quantities, it is relatively safer than other hypnotics.
(Ref: K.D.T. 5th / 361)
25. I.V. Diazepam in a patient on the dental chair can cause:
A. Tinel’s sign.
B. Verill’s sign.
C. Bell’s sign.
D. Corman’s sign
25. Answer is: B- Verill’s sign
(Ref. Neelima Malik 1st Ed. / 650) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06
26. Drug that can result in hyperglycemia is:
A. Beta blockers.
B. ACE inhibitors.
C. Glucocorticoids.
D. NSAIDs.
26. Answer is: C-Glucocorticoids.
(Ref: KDT 5th Ed / Pg 256)
DENTAL HISTOLOGY
27. Type of Collagen found in principle fibres is:
A. Type-I.
B. Type-II.
C. Type-III.
D. Type-IV.
27. Answer is: A. Type I
(Ref: Carranza -9th Ed/Pg 37)
GENERAL MEDICINE
28. All of the following lead to severe adverse effects except:
A. Death.
B. Diabetes.
C. Prolonged hospitalization.
D. Immobility.
28. Answer is: B- Diabetes.
(Ref: Still searching….)

29. One of the following can be used in the management of a hemophilic patient:
A. Ascorbic acid.
B. Tranexamic acid.
C. Ascorbic acid.
D. Palmitoic acid.
29. Answer is: B- Tranexamic acid
(Ref. Neelima Malik 1st Ed. / 681) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
P.S.M & COMMUNITY DENTISTRY
30. Regarding Case control, all of the following are true except:
A. Risk factors can be identified.
B. It can be used in the study of rare diseases.
C. It measures incidence.
D. It requires few subjects.
30. Answer is: C- It measures incidence
(Park- 18th / 68 table 13) Repeat AIPG-06.
31. Break point chlorination indicates:
A. Start of chlorination process.
B. End of chlorination process.
C. Point where free residual chlorine starts appearing.
D. Point after partial saturation of water with chlorine.
31. Answer is: C- Point where free residual chlorine starts appearing.
(Ref: Soben P- 2nd / 778) Repeat AIPG-06.
32. Square root of pq/n indicates:
A. Standard error of mean.
B. Standard error of difference in means.
C. Standard error of proportion.
D. Standard error of difference in proportions.
32. Answer is: C- Standard error of proportions.
(Ref: Park-18th /649) Repeat AIPG-06.
33. True regarding Randomized Controlled Trial:
A. Baseline characteristics of intervention and control groups should be similar.
B. Investigator’s bias is minimized by double blinding.
C. Help ensure that study subjects are a part of the general population.
D. Reduce selection bias in allocation of treatment.
33. Answer is: D- Reduce selection bias in allocation to treatment
(Ref: Park 18th / 76) Repeat AIPG-06.
34. All of the following is true regarding informed consent except:
A. Patient must be informed about alternative procedures & their benefits.
B. Risk factors involved in the procedure must be explained.
C. Benefits of treatment likely to result must be highlighted.
D. Concealment of procedures which are beneficial may be done knowingly.
34. Answer is: D- Concealment of procedures which are beneficial may be done knowingly.
(Ref: Soben Peter 3rd / 773)
35. Good clinical practice is not essential in:
A. Preclinical studies.
B. Phase-I studies.
C. Phase-II studies.
D. Phase-IV studies.
35. Answer is: A- Preclinical studies.
36. Number of teeth used in modified PHP index is:
A. 6
B. 12
C. 18
D. 24
36. Answer is: A- 6.
(Ref: Soben Peter 3rd / 135-36)
ORAL PATHOLOGY
37. Pemphigus vulgaris is characterised by:
A. Acanthosis.
B. Auspitz sign
C. Acantholysis.
D. Wickham’s striae.
37. Answer is: C- Acantholysis
(Ref: Shafer 5th /1128) Repeat AIPG-06.
38. One of the following is an oral precancerous lesion:
A. Oral hairy leukoplakia.
B. Hairy B-cell leukemia.
C. White sponge nevus.
D. Speckled leukoplakia.
38. Answer is: D- Speckled leukoplakia
(Ref: Burket- 10th / Pg 102) Repeat AIPG-06.
39. Important organism causing dentinal caries is:
A. Streptococcus mutans.
B. Streptococcus viridans.
C. Borrelia vincenti.
D. Actinomyces actinobacillus.
39. Answer is: A- Streptococcus mutans.
(Ref: Shafer 5th /575) Repeat AIPG-06.
40. In taurodontism affected teeth exhibit:
A. Elongated large pulp chambers, short roots
B. Elongated small pulp chambers, short roots.
C. Elongated large pulp chambers, large roots.
D. Elongated small pulp chambers, large roots.
40. Answer is: A- Elongated large pulp chambers and short roots.
(Ref: Shafer 5th / 60) Repeat AIPG-06.
41. Dens in dente is most commonly seen in:
A. Premolars
B. Lateral incisors.
C. Paramolars
D. Maxillary canines.
41. Answer is: B- Lateral incisors
(Ref: Shafer 5th / 57) Repeat AIPG-06.
42. A tumor of oral cavity represented as T3N2M0 is classified as:
A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III
D. Stage IV
42. Answer is: D- Stage IV
(Ref: Harrison-16th /505)
43. Blanching of the oral mucosa is associated with:
A. Scleroderma.
B. Riboflavin deficiency
C. Oral sub mucous fibrosis.
D. Thiamine deficiency.

43. Answer is: C- Oral submucous fibrosis.
(Ref. Shafer’s 5th Ed/ 136, 4th Ed/ 109)
44. Rigidity of the oral mucosa is seen with:
A. Oral sub mucous fibrosis.
B. Cicatricial pemphigoid.
C. Healed lesions of aphthous stomatitis.
D. None of the above.
44. Answer is: A- Oral submucous fibrosis.
(Ref: Above answer & Pathology of head and neck tumors- Leon Barnes.)
45. Bilateral spongy folded mucosa is seen in:
A. Candidiasis.
B. White sponge nevus.
C. Aspirin burns.
D. Leukoplakia.
45. Answer is: B- White sponge nevus
(Ref: Shafer/ 4th- 825)
46. White patch on the buccal mucosa which disappears on stretching is:
A. Leukoplakia.
B. White sponge nevus.
C. Scleroderma.
D. Leucoedema.
46. Answer is: D- Leucoedema.
(Ref: Burket/ 10th- 86)

47. Most common site of occurrence of lateral periodontal cyst is:
A. Between maxillary premolars.
B. Mandibular third molar area.
C. Maxillary tuberosity area.
D. Between mandibular cuspid & premolar.
47. Answer is: D- Between the mandibular cuspid and first premolar.
(Ref: Shafer 5th / 372) Repeat AIPG-06.
48. In leukemic patient bleeding does not stop because of:
A. Decreased platelet count.
B. Increased WBC count.
C. Increased calcium levels.
D. Decrease in coagulation factor levels.
48. Answer is: A- Decreased platelet count.
(Ref: Carranza -9th Ed/ Pg 216) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
49. Increased alkaline phosphatase levels are seen with:
A. Paget’s disease.
B. Hypophosphatasia.
C. Cherubism.
D. Hyperparathyroidism.
49. Answer is: A- Paget’s disease.
(Ref: Shafer/ 5th -1001)
50. In lead poisoning gingival discoloration presents as:
A. Blue-black line.
B. Yellow line.
C. Grayish black line.
D. Steel gray line.
50. Answer is: A- Blue black/ C- Grayish black line/ D- Steel gray
(Ref: Carranza 9th /223; Shafer 5th Ed/774; Burket 8th/ 302)

51. Dilaceration occurs due to:
A. Trauma to the tooth germ during root development.
B. Abnormal displacement of the tooth germ during root development.
C. Abnormal displacement of enamel epithelium during tooth development.
D. Abnormal displacement of ameloblasts during tooth development.
51. Answer is: A- Trauma to the tooth germ during root development.
(Ref: Shafer -5th Ed/ 56) Repeat AIPG-06
52. Which of the following is true about Xerostomia?
A. pH of saliva increases.
B. pH of saliva decreases.
C. pH of saliva increases in morning & decreases in evening.
D. pH of saliva remains unchanged.
52. Answer is: B- pH of saliva decreases. (Most probably)
(Ref: Shafer 4th/33-34, Burket-10th /222).
53. Diagnosis of Periapical Cemental Dysplasia is done by:
A. Vitality tests.
B. Radiographs.
C. Percussion.
D. Examination of the lamina dura.
53. Answer is: A- Vitality tests (Most probably)
(Ref: White and Pharoah -5th / 495)

54. Toluidene blue stain is used to distinguish between:
A. Pemphigus & lichen planus.
B. Leukoplakia & lichen planus.
C. Detection of malignant transformation.
D. Candidiasis & leukoplakia.
54. Answer is: C- Detection of malignant transformation.
(Ref: Burket- 10th / 106)

ORAL RADIOLOGY
55. Radiographically, driven snow appearance is seen with:
A. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumour
B. Calcifying odontogenic cyst
C. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumour
D. Keratocyst
55. Answer is: C- Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumour
(Ref: Shafers 5th / 392) Repeat AIPG-06.
56. Disadvantage of a grid is:
A. Increases exposure time.
B. Decreases clarity.
C. Causes blurring of image.
D. More skin dose.
56. Answer is: A- Increases exposure time.
(Ref: White and Pharoah -5th / 85) AIIMS-NOV-05
57. Consistent radiographs are maintained by:
A. Constant mA & kVp.
B. Automatic processing.
C. Using long cone technique
D. Fixed processing time.
57. Answer is: B- Automated processing. (My guess)
(Ref: White & Pharoah 5th / 103)
58. Contrast on a radiograph is:
A. Dark areas on a radiograph.
B. Range of densities on a radiograph.
C. Overall darkening of the radiograph.
D. Light areas on the radiographs.
58. Answer is: B- Range of densities on a radiograph.
(Ref: White & Pharoah -5th / 392)
59. True about parallax technique:
A. Increases image clarity
B. Decreases distortion of the image.
C. Gives relative image of object.
D. Decreases image clarity.
59. Answer is: D- Decreases image clarity.
(Ref: White & Pharoah- 5th / 83) AIIMS-NOV-05
ORAL SURGERY
60. Most common reason for the removal of impacted mandibular third molars is:
A. Referred pain.
B. Recurrent pericoronitis.
C. Chronic periodontal disease.
D. Orthodontic treatment.
60. Answer is: B- Recurrent Pericoronitis.
(Ref: Shafer- 5th/86) Repeat AIPG-06.
61. Which of the following is the correct reason for facial nerve injury during forcep extraction?
A. The mastoid process is absent at birth
B. The parotid glands is in developing stage
C. The beak of the forceps engages the main trunk of facial nerve
D. The sublingual hematoma during delivery causes neuropraxia.
61. Answer is: A- The mastoid process is absent at birth
(Ref: Dutta- Obs and Gynec.- 5th Ed/ 591) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
62. Incidence of osteoradionecrosis is increased in following cases:
A. Extraction following radiotherapy.
B. Leukaemic patients.
C. Patients on hyperbaric oxygen therapy.
D. Xerostomia
62. Answer is: A- Extraction following radiotherapy.
(Ref. Neelima Malik :1st Ed/616-621)
63. Syncope results from:
A. Cerebral edema
B. Cerebral hyperemia
C. Cerebral hypoxia
D. Cerebral degeneration
63. Answer is: C- Cerebral hypoxia
(Ref. Davidson’s- 18th Ed. / 225, Ref. Monheims- 7th Ed. / 238) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
PERIODONTOLOGY
64. A papilla preservation flap is indicated in:
A. Horizontal bone loss in upper anterior region.
B. Infrabony defects.
C. Crater type bony defect.
D. One walled defect.
64. Answer is: A- Horizontal bone loss in upper anterior region.
(Ref: Carranza 9th/ 723) Repeat AIPG-06.
65. A procedure done to eliminate periodontal pocket & increase the width of attached gingiva is termed as:
A. Laterally displaced flap.
B. Apically displaced flap.
C. Papilla preservation flap.
D. Modified Widman flap.
65. Answer is: B- Apically displaced flap.
(Ref: Above question & chart)

66. Role of barrier membrane in GTR is:
A. To help overall healing.
B. Prevention of epithelial migration.
C. Arrest of bleeding.
D. Prevent the infection from reaching the underlying tissues.
66. Answer is: B- Prevention of epithelial migration
(Ref: Carranza 9th/809) Repeat AIPG-06
67. Biofilm found on tooth surface is termed as:
A. Enamel.
B. Dental plaque.
C. Saliva.
D. Dentinal caries.
67. Answer is: B- Dental Plaque
(Ref: Carranza 9th/97) Repeat AIPG-06.
68. Periodontitis that does not resolve with treatment is termed as:
A. Aggressive periodontitis.
B. Chronic periodontitis.
C. Refractory periodontitis.
D. Juvenille periodontitis.
68. Answer is: C- Refractory periodontitis.
(Ref: Carranza 10th/ 243)
69. Peripheral buttressing bone formation effect is termed as:
A. Ledges.
B. Craters.
C. Hemiseptum.
D. Lipping.
69. Answer is: D- Lipping.
(Ref: Carranza 9th/ Pg 362,365-66)
PROSTHODONTICS
70. Modification in Kennedy’s classification is:
A. Number of spaces present anterior to the remaining teeth.
B. Number of spaces present after the basic classification.
C. Edentulous spaces posterior to all the teeth.
D. Additional spaces in class-IV.
70. Answer is: B- Number of spaces present after the basic classification.
(Ref. McCracken’s removable partial denture: 11th Ed/pg 22)
71. One of the following is true about a pier abutment:
A. Presence of edentulous space mesial to the abutment tooth.
B. Presence of edentulous space distal to the abutment tooth.
C. Presence of edentulous spaces on both sides of the abutment tooth.
D. A periodontally weak abutment.
71. Answer is: C- Presence of edentulous spaces on both sides of the abutment tooth.
(Ref. Nallaswamy 1st Ed/ pg 550)
72. The correct placement of an indirect retainer is:
A. Near the fulcrum line.
B. Away from the fulcrum line.
C. Near the direct retainer.
D. Near the edentulous area.
72. Answer is: B- Away from the fulcrum line.
(Ref. McCracken’s: 11th Ed/Pg 156)
73. Lingual bar is: (size & shape)
A. 6 gauge, pear shaped.
B. 4 gauge, pear shaped.
C. 6 gauge, half pear shaped.
D. 4 gauge, half pear shaped.
73. Answer is: C- 6 gauge, half pear shaped.
(Ref. McCracken’s: 11th Ed/Pg 39)
74. Correct indication for a lingual plate is:
A. When the lingual sulcus is deep.
B. When the ridge is not strong enough to support the teeth.
C. When more number of anterior teeth are involved.
D. Any of the above can be an indication.
74. Answer is: C- When more number of anterior teeth are involved.
(Ref. McCracken’s: 11th Ed/Pg 42, 61)
75. Disadvantage of a flexible major connector is:
A. Causes other components of the RPD to become more effective.
B. Causes overload & periodontal destruction of the abutment teeth.
C. Decreased retention.
D. -----------
75. Answer is: B- Causes overload & periodontal destruction of the abutment teeth.
(Ref. McCracken’s: 11th Ed/Pg 35-36)
OPERATIVE DENTISTRY
76. Permeability of dentin does not depend upon:
A. Smear layer.
B. Diffusion co-efficient of fluid.
C. Convection of fluid
D. Length of dentinal tubules.
76. Answer is: Still searching
77. Incipient or recurrent caries can be detected before they are visible on a radiograph by:
A. Visible light.
B. Ultrasonic light.
C. Fibre optic trans-illumination.
D. Digital Fibre optic trans-illumination.
77. Answer is: D- Digital Fibre optic trans-illumination.
(Ref. Damle 3rd Ed/ 51, Internet references) Repeat AIPG-06.

78. Resistance form is that shape of a cavity which:
A. Prevents displacement of restoration.
B. Permits restoration to withstand occlusal forces.
C. Prevents displacement of restoration & Permits restoration to withstand occlusal forces.
D. Allows for adequate instrumentation.
78. Answer is: B- Permits restoration to withstand occlusal forces.
(Ref. Sturdevant’s: 4th Ed/pg 290)
79. Pin used in pin retained restoration of an endodontically treated tooth is:
A. Cemented.
B. Friction locked.
C. Self threaded.
D. Any of the above.
79. Answer is: A- Cemented pin
(Ref: Sturdevant- 2nd Ed. / Page. 373.) Repeat AIPG-06.
ENDODONTICS
80. Sterilization of Gutta percha points is done by:
A. Hot salt sterilizer
B. Autoclaving
C. Chemical solutions
D. Dry heat.
80. Answer is: C- Chemical solutions.
(Ref: Grossman-11th Ed/ Pg 140) Repeat AIPG-06.
81. Difference between physical characteristics of a file & reamer is:
A. The cross-section of reamers is square and files are triangular in cross section.
B. The numbers of flutes on the blade are more in files than in reamers.
C. The reamers have more flutes in the blade.
D. Files have two superficial grooves to produce flutes in a double helix design.
81. Answer is: B- The numbers of flutes on the blade are more in files than in reamers.
(Ref. Grossman 11th Ed/ 195) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
ORTHODONTICS
82. A dentist performed restorative procedure in an 11 year old child and found that the primary molars were in various stages of exfoliation with slight anterior crowding present. His next appointment should be:
A. After three months for observation
B. After six months for recall checkup
C. After one year
D. When all the permanent teeth will erupt
82. Answer is: A- After three months for observation
(Ref: National boards series-Q. no.16, March 1980 paper) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-07.
83. Rectangular wire used in edgewise appliance is primarily meant for:
A. Correction of crown root position
B. Increasing the strength of wire
C. Correction of Arch-length Deficiency
D. Used for correction of anterior crowding
83. Answer is: A- Correction of crown root position
(Ref. Proffit- 2nd Ed/Pg 343) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
84. A buccal coil spring is used to regain space between 1st premolar & 1st molar. The most common post treatment complication is:
A. Pain
B. Gingival irritation
C. Tendency for the 1st molar to intrude
D. Tendency for the 1st premolar to rotate
84. Answer is: D- Tendency for the 1st premolar to rotate
(Ref: National boards series-Q. no.26, March 1980 paper) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
85. Arch space for the eruption of 3rd molars is created by:
A. Apposition of alveolar process
B. Resorption of posterior border of Ramus
C. Resorption of anterior border of Ramus.
D. Apposition of lower body of mandible.
85. Answer is: C- Resorption of anterior border of Ramus.
(Ref. Bhalajhi 3rd Ed/ Pg 33) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
86. ANB angle of 2? indicates:
A. A favorable relationship of maxillary alveolar base to Mandibular alveolar base
B. A favorable relationship of mandible to cranium.
C. Poor cranial growth
D. Upright incisors
86. Answer is: A- A favorable relationship of maxillary alveolar base to mandibular alveolar base.
(Ref: Bhalajhi- 3rd Ed/ 154, National boards series-Q. no.23, March 1980 paper) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
87. When a maxillary removable orthodontic appliance is first placed, the effect on patient’s speech will be:
A. Difficulty with lingual vowels for a few days.
B. Difficulty with lingual vowel for several weeks.
C. Difficulty with linguoalveolar consonants for a few days.
D. Difficulty with linguoalveolar consonants for several weeks.
87. Answer is: C- Difficulty with linguoalveolar consonants for a few days.
(Ref: National boards series-Q. no.24, March 1980 paper) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
PEDODONTICS
88. Pulse oxymetry is used for the determination of:
A. Rate of blood flow.
B. Oxygen saturation.
C. Blood volume.
D. Blood coefficient.
88. Answer is: B- Oxygen saturation
(Ref. Shobha Tandon 1st Ed/ Pg 338) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
89. A non-invasive method to measure the blood flow is:
A. Electric pulp testing.
B. Percussion.
C. Laser Doppler flowmetry.
D. Radiographic visualization.
89. Answer is: C- Laser Doppler flowmetry
(Ref. Shobha Tandon, 1st Ed/ 332) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
90. First to advocate distal shoe in 1929:
A. Wilson.
B. William.
C. Willet.
D. Roche.
90. Answer is: C- Willet.
(Ref: AIIMS-MAY-06, Q-86)

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