45. radiographic feature in gingivitis- normal bone
46. 8mm pocket- pseudo pocket
47. root # in the apical third of permanent teeth usually ------- vital n functional
48. trauma from occlusion least likely to affect------- epithelial attachment
49. adenoid odontogenic tumor called as-------- adenoameloblastoma
50. radicular cyst always asso. with.---------- non vital tooth
51. abrasion most common on--------------- maxillary arch left side
52. nitrous oxide nt used alone in GA------------- difficulty to maintain adequate O2 con.
53. floating tooth----cherubism
54. loading dose dependant on---vol of distribution
55. mode
56. koch's postulate
57. modification of koch's postulate
58. difference between etchant and gel
59. bone grafting done before canine extraction or after in cleft case
60. use of paired t test or unpaired in two groups
61. a tooth in which rct was started 2 yrs back , radiolucency does not resolve reason , curretage done
62. periapical radoioopacities around molar
63. patient on steriod therapy , whay would u give
64. in # mand part behind # line acts as
65. material which has high tensile strength but low compressive strength called
66. a girl using teething gel _ acrodynia?
67. mixture of 2.5% + 2.5% used in
68. gasserian block
69. mand block
70. eutectic mixture used in anesthesia of intact skin
71. injury which does not extend to dermis.... contusion
72. bilat. canine area fracture in md. is pushed backwards by action of muscles, ant belly digastric genioglossus geniohyoid
73. nt effective against MRSA clotrimaxazole
74. in penicillin allergic pt penicillin nd erythromycin nt given together why, erythromycin reduce d action of penicillin
75. tt. 4 a pt having badly carious left LI wid inability of opening left eye ,fluctuant swelling on
76. left side of face, fever.... incision and drainage
77. sorting of pt.of trauma on basis of need of care nd availability of resources....triage
78. prevention of long term widrawl effects of morphine
79. gingivoplasty nt req in all except ........ acute necrotising ulcerative gingivitis
80. organism absent in pdl diseases?????
81. semipermeable sulcular epi. leads 2 .... both of the above
82. multiple radiolucencies in 30 yr old lady due 2..?
83. GA cause rapid recovery wid max consciousness.?
84. muscle not originated from oblique line of thyroid....sup constrictor
85. t lymphocytes primarily do...produce lymphokine and .....
86. T2N0M0 signify stage 2 .
Saturday, December 5, 2009
AIIMS 2008 NOV MDS
1. radioluceny at the apex of a vital tooth
2. radio opacity periapical
3. dentin conditioners
4. acid etch causes
5. 8 year old child with green stains
6. shape of access opening of mand moar with 4 canals
7. not a periodontal pathogen
8. most common developmental maxillary cyst
9. which is benzodiazepne antagonist
10. fluride from GIC reacts wid?
11. bleeding patient in emergency,
12. tongue control lost, maanagement?
13. mandibular fracture tension/ compression / rotation/ torsion?
14. DIFOTI use
15. gel used for etching not liquid y?
16. irregulr dentin ,interglobular dentin
17. etchant protected 4m entering pulp
18. radiopacity below3 month old amalgam restr.
19. .semipermeable sulcular epi. leads 2
20. multiple radiolucencies in 30 yr old lady due 2
21. floating teeth seen in
22. etching leads 2 reduction in
23. eutectic mixture used in
24. postoperative effect is minimum wid
25. oral pigmentation seen in
26. gingivoplasty nt req in all except
27. plaque contains
28. bilat. canine area fracture in md. is pushed backwards by action of muscles
29. nt effective against MRSA
30. in penicillin allergic pt penicillin nd erythromycin nt given together why
31. tt. 4 a pt having badly carious left LI wid inability of opening left eye ,fluctuant swelling on left side of face, fever
32. sorting of pt.of trauma on basis of need of care nd availability of resources
33. prevention of long term widrawl effects of morphine is prevented by
34. which GA cause rapid recovery wid max consciousness
35. muscle not originated from oblique line of thyroid
36. t lymphocytes primarily do
37. T2N0M0 signify stage 2
38. plaque contain-bacteria & food products,
39. infectious mononucleosis- ebv
40. suger found-sucrose
41. oral pigmentation-addison disease
42. avulsed tooth-wash with saline
43. painful socket- irrigation & medicated gauge
44. hair on end appearance-thallesemia
2. radio opacity periapical
3. dentin conditioners
4. acid etch causes
5. 8 year old child with green stains
6. shape of access opening of mand moar with 4 canals
7. not a periodontal pathogen
8. most common developmental maxillary cyst
9. which is benzodiazepne antagonist
10. fluride from GIC reacts wid?
11. bleeding patient in emergency,
12. tongue control lost, maanagement?
13. mandibular fracture tension/ compression / rotation/ torsion?
14. DIFOTI use
15. gel used for etching not liquid y?
16. irregulr dentin ,interglobular dentin
17. etchant protected 4m entering pulp
18. radiopacity below3 month old amalgam restr.
19. .semipermeable sulcular epi. leads 2
20. multiple radiolucencies in 30 yr old lady due 2
21. floating teeth seen in
22. etching leads 2 reduction in
23. eutectic mixture used in
24. postoperative effect is minimum wid
25. oral pigmentation seen in
26. gingivoplasty nt req in all except
27. plaque contains
28. bilat. canine area fracture in md. is pushed backwards by action of muscles
29. nt effective against MRSA
30. in penicillin allergic pt penicillin nd erythromycin nt given together why
31. tt. 4 a pt having badly carious left LI wid inability of opening left eye ,fluctuant swelling on left side of face, fever
32. sorting of pt.of trauma on basis of need of care nd availability of resources
33. prevention of long term widrawl effects of morphine is prevented by
34. which GA cause rapid recovery wid max consciousness
35. muscle not originated from oblique line of thyroid
36. t lymphocytes primarily do
37. T2N0M0 signify stage 2
38. plaque contain-bacteria & food products,
39. infectious mononucleosis- ebv
40. suger found-sucrose
41. oral pigmentation-addison disease
42. avulsed tooth-wash with saline
43. painful socket- irrigation & medicated gauge
44. hair on end appearance-thallesemia
Wednesday, December 2, 2009
AIPGE 09 MDS Prosthodontics
Prosthodontics
208. Methods to reduce backpressure porosity
a) Vacuum investing
b) Increasing length of sprue
c) …
d) …
Ans:
208. Methods to reduce backpressure porosity
a) Vacuum investing
b) Increasing length of sprue
c) …
d) …
Ans:
AIPGE 09 MDS Oral & Maxillofacial Surgery
Oral & Maxillofacial Surgery
187. Lingual splaying will cause increase in
a) Interpupillary distance
b) Intercanthal distance
c) Interangle distance
d) Go – Gn distance
188. A condylar fracture with fragment overlap of >5mm and angle >37 degree needs what treatment?
a) Closed reduction and imf
b) ORIF
c) Soft diet only
d) No treatment
Ans:
189. When a mandibular fracture is transferred to an intensive care unit,under what is mandibular fracture treated
a) Primary survey
b) Secondary survey
c) Primary survey with IMF
d) Resuscitation room
190. When a minimal injury as a glancing blow is struck,to what variable is it related?
a) Position of strike
b) Area of strike
c) Angulation of strike
d) Location of strike
Ans:
191. According to the tension and compression forces acting at the condylar border which of these would best attenuate them?
a) A plate at the anterior border and another at the posterior border
b) A plate at the anterior border
c) A plate at the posterior border
d) A plate at the lateral border
Ans:
192. Treatment of comminuted fracture in angle of mandible
a) Multiple miniplates
b) Compression plates
c) Recontruction plates
d) Single miniplate which gives functional union
Ans: Reconstruction plates
193. Bone which fills in an osseous defect is
a) Spongy
b) Cancellous
c) Bundle
d) None
Ans:
194. What is the best treatment for a fractured angle mandible?
a )two plates as acc to AO principles
b)compression plating
c )reconstruction plates
d)
Ans:
195. The failure of IAN block can occur in children due to
a) Concentration of LA
b) Presence of adrenaline
c) Position of needle
d) Angle of ramus
Ans: d) Angle of ramus
196. Which of the following is not done as a investigation in osteosarcoma
a) MRI femur
b) Bone marrow biopsy
c) Bone scan
d) Xray chest
Ans:
197. Alveolar bone grafting in a cleft palate patient is done
a) After maxillary expansion, cross bite correction, before canine eruption
b) Before maxillary expansion cross bite correction after canine eruption
c) After maxillary expansion cross bite correction after canine eruption
d) Before maxillary expansion cross bite correction before canine eruption
Ans: a)After maxillary expansion, cross bite correction, before canine eruption
198. A pt is admitted with head injury, GCS = 8, maxillary fracture, frequent apnea and low oxygenation. Airway management is done by
a) Oropharyngeal airway
b) Orotracheal airway
c) Cricothyroidotomy
d) …
Ans: c) Cricothyroidotomy
199. Excisional biopsy is done by
a) Complete excision of the tumor along with some part of normal tissue
b) Partial excision of the tumor alone
c) Partial excision of the tumor with normal tissue
d) Complete excision of the tumor
Ans: a) Complete excision of the tumor along with some part of normal tissue
200. The bone present on the labial side of lower anteriors is
a) Cortical
b) Cancellous
c) Fibrous
d) Spongy
Ans: a) Cortical
201. The type of bone present between the furcations is
a)cortical
b)cancellous
c)fibrous
d)spongy
Ans: b) Cancellous
202. Champy plates
a) …
b) …
c) …
d) …
Ans:
203. Commonest impaction
a) Mesioangular
b) Distoangular
c) Vertical
d) Horizontal
Ans: Mesioangular
204. Which anesthetic is used intravenously
a) Propofol
b) …
c) …
d) …
Ans:
205. LA does not act in the presence of inflammation as LA solution molecules
a) Are positively charged
b) Are negatively charged
c) Not charged
d) …
Ans:
206. In mass trauma cases treatment priority given to
a) Those with life threatening conditions
b) Those who can be revived with minimum of resources and manpower
c) Those requiring maximum machinery and manpower
d) ….
Ans: b) Those who can be revived with minimum of resources and manpower
207. A patient is suffering from severe facial pain and a nasopharengeal tumor is present on the lateral wall of larynx.The patient is suffering from
a) Plummervinson syndrome
b) Trotters syndrome :ans
c) Reiters syndrome
d) …
Ans:
187. Lingual splaying will cause increase in
a) Interpupillary distance
b) Intercanthal distance
c) Interangle distance
d) Go – Gn distance
188. A condylar fracture with fragment overlap of >5mm and angle >37 degree needs what treatment?
a) Closed reduction and imf
b) ORIF
c) Soft diet only
d) No treatment
Ans:
189. When a mandibular fracture is transferred to an intensive care unit,under what is mandibular fracture treated
a) Primary survey
b) Secondary survey
c) Primary survey with IMF
d) Resuscitation room
190. When a minimal injury as a glancing blow is struck,to what variable is it related?
a) Position of strike
b) Area of strike
c) Angulation of strike
d) Location of strike
Ans:
191. According to the tension and compression forces acting at the condylar border which of these would best attenuate them?
a) A plate at the anterior border and another at the posterior border
b) A plate at the anterior border
c) A plate at the posterior border
d) A plate at the lateral border
Ans:
192. Treatment of comminuted fracture in angle of mandible
a) Multiple miniplates
b) Compression plates
c) Recontruction plates
d) Single miniplate which gives functional union
Ans: Reconstruction plates
193. Bone which fills in an osseous defect is
a) Spongy
b) Cancellous
c) Bundle
d) None
Ans:
194. What is the best treatment for a fractured angle mandible?
a )two plates as acc to AO principles
b)compression plating
c )reconstruction plates
d)
Ans:
195. The failure of IAN block can occur in children due to
a) Concentration of LA
b) Presence of adrenaline
c) Position of needle
d) Angle of ramus
Ans: d) Angle of ramus
196. Which of the following is not done as a investigation in osteosarcoma
a) MRI femur
b) Bone marrow biopsy
c) Bone scan
d) Xray chest
Ans:
197. Alveolar bone grafting in a cleft palate patient is done
a) After maxillary expansion, cross bite correction, before canine eruption
b) Before maxillary expansion cross bite correction after canine eruption
c) After maxillary expansion cross bite correction after canine eruption
d) Before maxillary expansion cross bite correction before canine eruption
Ans: a)After maxillary expansion, cross bite correction, before canine eruption
198. A pt is admitted with head injury, GCS = 8, maxillary fracture, frequent apnea and low oxygenation. Airway management is done by
a) Oropharyngeal airway
b) Orotracheal airway
c) Cricothyroidotomy
d) …
Ans: c) Cricothyroidotomy
199. Excisional biopsy is done by
a) Complete excision of the tumor along with some part of normal tissue
b) Partial excision of the tumor alone
c) Partial excision of the tumor with normal tissue
d) Complete excision of the tumor
Ans: a) Complete excision of the tumor along with some part of normal tissue
200. The bone present on the labial side of lower anteriors is
a) Cortical
b) Cancellous
c) Fibrous
d) Spongy
Ans: a) Cortical
201. The type of bone present between the furcations is
a)cortical
b)cancellous
c)fibrous
d)spongy
Ans: b) Cancellous
202. Champy plates
a) …
b) …
c) …
d) …
Ans:
203. Commonest impaction
a) Mesioangular
b) Distoangular
c) Vertical
d) Horizontal
Ans: Mesioangular
204. Which anesthetic is used intravenously
a) Propofol
b) …
c) …
d) …
Ans:
205. LA does not act in the presence of inflammation as LA solution molecules
a) Are positively charged
b) Are negatively charged
c) Not charged
d) …
Ans:
206. In mass trauma cases treatment priority given to
a) Those with life threatening conditions
b) Those who can be revived with minimum of resources and manpower
c) Those requiring maximum machinery and manpower
d) ….
Ans: b) Those who can be revived with minimum of resources and manpower
207. A patient is suffering from severe facial pain and a nasopharengeal tumor is present on the lateral wall of larynx.The patient is suffering from
a) Plummervinson syndrome
b) Trotters syndrome :ans
c) Reiters syndrome
d) …
Ans:
AIPGE 09 MDS Radiology
Radiology
177. When a child is not able 2 hold the IOPA film,who should hold it?
a) Dentist
b) Parent
c) Assisstant
d) Radiographer
Ans: b) Parent
178. Bisecting angle technique uses
a) Rule of Isometry
b) ALARA
c) SLOB
d) …
Ans: a) Rule of Isometry
179. Trapnell lines and McG.... lines are used in
a) True lateral
b) PA mandible
c) PNS view
d) …
Ans:
180. In a radiograph, the buccal root of max 1st premolar appears to be distal to the lingual root.The angulation of the cone was
a) Mesial to the premolar
b) Distal to the premolar
c) 10 degrees from above in a vertical angulation
d) 10 degrees from below in a vertical angulation
Ans: a) Mesial to the premolar
181.On the radiograph,the mesial aspect of a mandibular 1st molar, 2-3 mm bone loss is found.On probing, 6mm pocket is present.The difference is due to
a) Wrong angulation of radiograph
b) Facial and lingual bone superimposition
c) Mesial and buccal bone superimposition
d) Mesial and lingual bone superimposition
Ans:
182.On a radiograph, irregularities are found on the root area of lower incisors.It may be
a) Subgingival calculus
b) Root caries
c) …
d) …
Ans: a)Subgingival calculus
183. Best for detecting posterior proximal caries in children with minimum radiatn exposure is
a) bitewing with paralleling technique
b) bitewing with bisecting angle technique
c) bitewing with rvg
d) …
Ans:
184. Which of the following is identified only by radiographs?
a) Mental foramen
b) Apical cyst
c) PA granuloma
d) Chronic periodontitis
Ans: a) Mental foramen
185. Radiopacity at apex of a carious molar
a) Periapical granuloma
b) Condensing osteitis
c) Periapical cyst
d) …
Ans: Condensing osteitis
186. Radiographic appearance of periapical abscess in a primary molar as radiolucency
a) In the inter radicular area
b) Periapical area
c) Lateral to root
d) …
Ans: a) In the interradicular area
177. When a child is not able 2 hold the IOPA film,who should hold it?
a) Dentist
b) Parent
c) Assisstant
d) Radiographer
Ans: b) Parent
178. Bisecting angle technique uses
a) Rule of Isometry
b) ALARA
c) SLOB
d) …
Ans: a) Rule of Isometry
179. Trapnell lines and McG.... lines are used in
a) True lateral
b) PA mandible
c) PNS view
d) …
Ans:
180. In a radiograph, the buccal root of max 1st premolar appears to be distal to the lingual root.The angulation of the cone was
a) Mesial to the premolar
b) Distal to the premolar
c) 10 degrees from above in a vertical angulation
d) 10 degrees from below in a vertical angulation
Ans: a) Mesial to the premolar
181.On the radiograph,the mesial aspect of a mandibular 1st molar, 2-3 mm bone loss is found.On probing, 6mm pocket is present.The difference is due to
a) Wrong angulation of radiograph
b) Facial and lingual bone superimposition
c) Mesial and buccal bone superimposition
d) Mesial and lingual bone superimposition
Ans:
182.On a radiograph, irregularities are found on the root area of lower incisors.It may be
a) Subgingival calculus
b) Root caries
c) …
d) …
Ans: a)Subgingival calculus
183. Best for detecting posterior proximal caries in children with minimum radiatn exposure is
a) bitewing with paralleling technique
b) bitewing with bisecting angle technique
c) bitewing with rvg
d) …
Ans:
184. Which of the following is identified only by radiographs?
a) Mental foramen
b) Apical cyst
c) PA granuloma
d) Chronic periodontitis
Ans: a) Mental foramen
185. Radiopacity at apex of a carious molar
a) Periapical granuloma
b) Condensing osteitis
c) Periapical cyst
d) …
Ans: Condensing osteitis
186. Radiographic appearance of periapical abscess in a primary molar as radiolucency
a) In the inter radicular area
b) Periapical area
c) Lateral to root
d) …
Ans: a) In the interradicular area
AIPGE 09 MDS Conservative Dentistry
Conservative Dentistry
150.Difference in tooth preparion for non carious Class V amalgam and composites
a) Depth of the cavity
b) Mesial and distal walls of the cavity
c) Placement of retentive grooves
d) Cavosurface margins
Ans: d) Cavosurface margins
151. To increase the efficiency of tungsten carbide bur
a) Should run only after touching the tooth
b) Run at high speed before touching the tooth
c) Run at low speed before touching the tooth
d) Run before entering the oral cavity
Ans: c) Run at low speed before touching the tooth
152. A mand.molar is restored with a gold inlay. Severe shooting pain is experienced when teeth come in contact. The cause is
a) Supraocclusion
b) Allergic reaction
c) Excess cement
d) Galvanism due to opposite amalgam restoration
Ans: d)Galvanism due to opposite amalgam restoration
153. Most imp bevel for gold inlay restoration is
a) Occlusal
b) Gingival
c) Axiopuplal
d) Axiofacial
Ans:
154. When pins are used in amalgam, strength of amalgam
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Same
d) ….
Ans: b)Decreases
155. Action of primer
a) Removal of smear layer
b) Increases surface free energy of dentin
c) Forms thin layer between collagen and resin
d) Bonds with composite
Ans:
156. Which is a wrong technique of placement of rubberdam
a) Place the clamp on tooth and insert the rubber dam
b) Place the dam over the clamp and then on tooth
c) Place the dam over the clamp and frame outside the oral cavity and then on tooth using a holder under the dam
d) Put holder over the dam
Ans:
157. Which is most difficult to diagnose
a) Necrosed pulp
b) Internal resorption
c) Chronic pulpitis
d) Acute apical abscess
Ans:
158. tev dek sutures used in endodontic microsurgery are removed in
a) 24-72 hrs
b) 72-96 hrs
c) 7 days
d)10 days
Ans:
159. Irreversible colonization of bacteria occurs in hw much time after enamel is exposed to bacteria?
a) 24 hrs
b) 1-2 hrs
c) 3-4 hrs
d) Immediately
Ans:
160. What lines become prominent after carious process?
a) Hunter schreger bands
b) Incremental lines of retzius
c) Incremental lines of pickerill
d) Incremental lines of von ebner
Ans: Incremental lines of retzius
161. Which is the best material for treatment of non-carious Class V cavities in unstable acid erosion cases?
a) GIC
b) RM-GIC
c) Compomer
d) Composite
Ans: d) Composite
162. Polymerization shrinkage of composite causes compression stress of
a) 1 mpa
b) 15 mpa
c) 5 mpa
d) 30 mpa
Ans:
163. In a tooth with gingival recession undergoing RCT, the gp cone is sealed at
a) Level of anatomic crown junction
b) 1 mm below gingival crest
c) 1mm below the opening of the canal
d) 1mm above the opening of the canal
Ans:
164. While applying temporary restoration to a tooth during a procedure, the thickness of temporary should be
a) 1mm
b) 2mm
c) 3mm
d) 4mm
Ans:
165. During application of rubber dam, following can be used as a lubricant except
a) Vaseline
b) Soapy water
c) Shaving cream
d) …
Ans: a) Vaselin
166. Root surface caries is caused by
a) Lactobacillus
b) Streptococcus viridans
c) Actinimyces
d) Streptococcus mutans
Ans: c) Actinomyces
167. Root surface caries is caused by(repeated)
a) Lactobacillus
b) Streptococcus viridans
c) Actinimyces
d) Streptococcus mutans
Ans: c) Actinomyces
168. On preparing the root canal with a protaper F2 file, 1mm of the GP cone is cut so as to fit the canal with friction.The diameter of the apical preparation is
a) 0.29mm
b) 0.30mm
c) 0.31mm
d) 0.33mm
Ans:
169. Before restoring a tooth with composite, the area is etched. Accidental contamination occurs with saliva.Then
a) The area is reetched before restoration
b) The area is air dried using an air spray and continue with restoring
c) Wipe the saliva with cotton and continue to restore
d) The area washed with waterspray airdried and reetched
Ans: d)The area washed with waterspray airdried and retched
170. Restorative material of choice for classV abfraction in anterior tooth
a) Microfilled composite
b) GIC
c) RMGIC
d) Compomer
Ans: a) Microfilled composite
171. Proximal caries in a tooth starts
a) Above the contact point
b) Gingival to the contact point and gingiva
c) Gingival to the contact point and occusal to the gingival crest
d) At the contact point
Ans: c) Gingival to the contact point and occusal to the gingival crest
172. On radiographic examination of a deep carious tooth,pulp appears to be nearly exposed.what would be the line of treatment
a)consider the tooth to be exposed and carry out RCT
b)place a sedative dressing and restore with amalgam
c)place a sedative dressing and plan for a pulpotomy procedure in the next appointment
d) ….
Ans: c)place a sedative dressing and plan for a pulpotomy procedure in the next appointment
173. The thickness of kalzynol when its used as a temporary restoration in a rootcanal treated tooth
a) 1mm
b) 2mm
c) 3mm
d) 4mm
Ans:
174. In the slide preparation of a normal tooth,the radiolucent area occupied by
a) Normal pulp
b) Internal resorption
c) Inflammed pulp
d) Necrosed pulp
Ans: a) Normal pulp
175. Application frequency of APF in a caries prone child
a) Twice a year
b) Four times a year
c) Once a year
d) …
Ans: a) Twice a year
176. A porcelain inlay with a facial wall is to be prepared.The cavity walls
a) Should converge facially
b) The depth of the cavity is increased more than that for an amalgam restoration
c) The walls are placed parallel to each other
d) …
Ans:
150.Difference in tooth preparion for non carious Class V amalgam and composites
a) Depth of the cavity
b) Mesial and distal walls of the cavity
c) Placement of retentive grooves
d) Cavosurface margins
Ans: d) Cavosurface margins
151. To increase the efficiency of tungsten carbide bur
a) Should run only after touching the tooth
b) Run at high speed before touching the tooth
c) Run at low speed before touching the tooth
d) Run before entering the oral cavity
Ans: c) Run at low speed before touching the tooth
152. A mand.molar is restored with a gold inlay. Severe shooting pain is experienced when teeth come in contact. The cause is
a) Supraocclusion
b) Allergic reaction
c) Excess cement
d) Galvanism due to opposite amalgam restoration
Ans: d)Galvanism due to opposite amalgam restoration
153. Most imp bevel for gold inlay restoration is
a) Occlusal
b) Gingival
c) Axiopuplal
d) Axiofacial
Ans:
154. When pins are used in amalgam, strength of amalgam
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Same
d) ….
Ans: b)Decreases
155. Action of primer
a) Removal of smear layer
b) Increases surface free energy of dentin
c) Forms thin layer between collagen and resin
d) Bonds with composite
Ans:
156. Which is a wrong technique of placement of rubberdam
a) Place the clamp on tooth and insert the rubber dam
b) Place the dam over the clamp and then on tooth
c) Place the dam over the clamp and frame outside the oral cavity and then on tooth using a holder under the dam
d) Put holder over the dam
Ans:
157. Which is most difficult to diagnose
a) Necrosed pulp
b) Internal resorption
c) Chronic pulpitis
d) Acute apical abscess
Ans:
158. tev dek sutures used in endodontic microsurgery are removed in
a) 24-72 hrs
b) 72-96 hrs
c) 7 days
d)10 days
Ans:
159. Irreversible colonization of bacteria occurs in hw much time after enamel is exposed to bacteria?
a) 24 hrs
b) 1-2 hrs
c) 3-4 hrs
d) Immediately
Ans:
160. What lines become prominent after carious process?
a) Hunter schreger bands
b) Incremental lines of retzius
c) Incremental lines of pickerill
d) Incremental lines of von ebner
Ans: Incremental lines of retzius
161. Which is the best material for treatment of non-carious Class V cavities in unstable acid erosion cases?
a) GIC
b) RM-GIC
c) Compomer
d) Composite
Ans: d) Composite
162. Polymerization shrinkage of composite causes compression stress of
a) 1 mpa
b) 15 mpa
c) 5 mpa
d) 30 mpa
Ans:
163. In a tooth with gingival recession undergoing RCT, the gp cone is sealed at
a) Level of anatomic crown junction
b) 1 mm below gingival crest
c) 1mm below the opening of the canal
d) 1mm above the opening of the canal
Ans:
164. While applying temporary restoration to a tooth during a procedure, the thickness of temporary should be
a) 1mm
b) 2mm
c) 3mm
d) 4mm
Ans:
165. During application of rubber dam, following can be used as a lubricant except
a) Vaseline
b) Soapy water
c) Shaving cream
d) …
Ans: a) Vaselin
166. Root surface caries is caused by
a) Lactobacillus
b) Streptococcus viridans
c) Actinimyces
d) Streptococcus mutans
Ans: c) Actinomyces
167. Root surface caries is caused by(repeated)
a) Lactobacillus
b) Streptococcus viridans
c) Actinimyces
d) Streptococcus mutans
Ans: c) Actinomyces
168. On preparing the root canal with a protaper F2 file, 1mm of the GP cone is cut so as to fit the canal with friction.The diameter of the apical preparation is
a) 0.29mm
b) 0.30mm
c) 0.31mm
d) 0.33mm
Ans:
169. Before restoring a tooth with composite, the area is etched. Accidental contamination occurs with saliva.Then
a) The area is reetched before restoration
b) The area is air dried using an air spray and continue with restoring
c) Wipe the saliva with cotton and continue to restore
d) The area washed with waterspray airdried and reetched
Ans: d)The area washed with waterspray airdried and retched
170. Restorative material of choice for classV abfraction in anterior tooth
a) Microfilled composite
b) GIC
c) RMGIC
d) Compomer
Ans: a) Microfilled composite
171. Proximal caries in a tooth starts
a) Above the contact point
b) Gingival to the contact point and gingiva
c) Gingival to the contact point and occusal to the gingival crest
d) At the contact point
Ans: c) Gingival to the contact point and occusal to the gingival crest
172. On radiographic examination of a deep carious tooth,pulp appears to be nearly exposed.what would be the line of treatment
a)consider the tooth to be exposed and carry out RCT
b)place a sedative dressing and restore with amalgam
c)place a sedative dressing and plan for a pulpotomy procedure in the next appointment
d) ….
Ans: c)place a sedative dressing and plan for a pulpotomy procedure in the next appointment
173. The thickness of kalzynol when its used as a temporary restoration in a rootcanal treated tooth
a) 1mm
b) 2mm
c) 3mm
d) 4mm
Ans:
174. In the slide preparation of a normal tooth,the radiolucent area occupied by
a) Normal pulp
b) Internal resorption
c) Inflammed pulp
d) Necrosed pulp
Ans: a) Normal pulp
175. Application frequency of APF in a caries prone child
a) Twice a year
b) Four times a year
c) Once a year
d) …
Ans: a) Twice a year
176. A porcelain inlay with a facial wall is to be prepared.The cavity walls
a) Should converge facially
b) The depth of the cavity is increased more than that for an amalgam restoration
c) The walls are placed parallel to each other
d) …
Ans:
AIPGE 09 MDS General Surgery
General Surgery
139. A Patient with trauma suffers 15 % blood loss.
a) No treatment
b) Blood and colloidal transfusion
c) Colloidal transfusion only
d) Blood transfusion only
Ans: No treatment
140. In a deep wound, width is more than depth. It is
a) Stab wound
b) Slash
c) Laceration
d) Contaminated
Ans: b) Slash
141. Reactive arthritis is caused by
a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) H influenza
c) N. gonorrhoea
d) E coli
Ans:
142. Acute infection causes
a) Neutropenia
b) Leucopenia
c) Leucocytosis
d) …
Ans:
143. DLC is used for assessment of
a) Eosinophilia
b) Anemia
c) Leukocytosis
d) Leucopenia
Ans: a) Eosinophilia
144. Head ache of vascular origin are all except
a) Giant cell arteritis
b) Anesthesia dolorosa
c) Cluster head ache
d) Hemicrania
145. SABE of dental origin is caused by
a) Streptococcus viridans
b) Actinomyces
c) Streptococcus mutans
d) Streptococcus salivarius
Ans: a) Streptococcus viridans
146. A 9yr old child presents with generalized ulceration, fever, malaise, ulcers around the mouth.Treatment is
a) Symptomatic treatment and observation
b) Prescribe broad spectrum penicillin and mouthwash
c) Clean the mouth with a gentle mouthwash
d) …
Ans: a) Symptomatic treatment and observation
147. Which of the following increases turbulence in blood flow?
a) Reynolds number less than 2000
b) When velocity is decreased
c) When density of blood decreases
d) When diameter of blood vessel increases
Ans:
148.Facial nerve damage associated with
a) Transverse fracture of petrous temporal
b) Longitudinal fracture of petrous temporal
c) associated with csf otorhea
d) …
Ans: a) Transverse fracture of petrous temporal
149. Most common cause of pulmonary embolism
a) Lymphangitis
b) Endarteritis
c) Thrombophlebitis
d) …
Ans: c) Thrombophlebitis
139. A Patient with trauma suffers 15 % blood loss.
a) No treatment
b) Blood and colloidal transfusion
c) Colloidal transfusion only
d) Blood transfusion only
Ans: No treatment
140. In a deep wound, width is more than depth. It is
a) Stab wound
b) Slash
c) Laceration
d) Contaminated
Ans: b) Slash
141. Reactive arthritis is caused by
a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) H influenza
c) N. gonorrhoea
d) E coli
Ans:
142. Acute infection causes
a) Neutropenia
b) Leucopenia
c) Leucocytosis
d) …
Ans:
143. DLC is used for assessment of
a) Eosinophilia
b) Anemia
c) Leukocytosis
d) Leucopenia
Ans: a) Eosinophilia
144. Head ache of vascular origin are all except
a) Giant cell arteritis
b) Anesthesia dolorosa
c) Cluster head ache
d) Hemicrania
145. SABE of dental origin is caused by
a) Streptococcus viridans
b) Actinomyces
c) Streptococcus mutans
d) Streptococcus salivarius
Ans: a) Streptococcus viridans
146. A 9yr old child presents with generalized ulceration, fever, malaise, ulcers around the mouth.Treatment is
a) Symptomatic treatment and observation
b) Prescribe broad spectrum penicillin and mouthwash
c) Clean the mouth with a gentle mouthwash
d) …
Ans: a) Symptomatic treatment and observation
147. Which of the following increases turbulence in blood flow?
a) Reynolds number less than 2000
b) When velocity is decreased
c) When density of blood decreases
d) When diameter of blood vessel increases
Ans:
148.Facial nerve damage associated with
a) Transverse fracture of petrous temporal
b) Longitudinal fracture of petrous temporal
c) associated with csf otorhea
d) …
Ans: a) Transverse fracture of petrous temporal
149. Most common cause of pulmonary embolism
a) Lymphangitis
b) Endarteritis
c) Thrombophlebitis
d) …
Ans: c) Thrombophlebitis
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