AIPG 2011 Dental Questions Recall
1. 'indifferent' fibers are
a. elastic fibers
b. oxytalan fibers
c. collagen fibers
d. None of the above
2. Apical migration of epithelial attachment with corresponding recession of marginal gingiva results in
a.Shallow sulcus
b. gingival pocket formation
c. infrabony pocket formation
d. periodontal pocket formation
3. Gingival clefts may be formed by
a. occlusal disharmonies
b. faulty tooth brushing
c. normal frenum attachment
d. use of dental floss
4. Tobacco chewing is thought to be contributing / predisposing factor in which condition ?
a. desquamative gingivitis
b. ANUG
c.juvenile periodontitis
d. erythema multiforme
5. ADH from
a. pre optic
b. supra optic
c. para venticular
d. post optic
6. blood coagualation defect not seen?
a. after taking brufen
b. thalasamia
c. VWF defiecien
d.
7. attached gingiva is
a. always stippled
b. non keratinized
c. resistant to masticatory stress and forces
d. resistant to inflammatory changes
8. Type of bone present in interradicular area
cortical
cancellous
osteophytic
exophyric
9. type of bone present on labial surface of anterior teeth
cortical
cancellous
exophytic
osteophytic
10. most common cause of drymouth in adults
tarnquilizers
anti-histaminics
insulin
birth control pills
11. most common clinical sign of occlusal trauma
wear facets
tooth mobility
enamel cracks
cuspal fracture
12. probable etiology of gingivosis is
high progesterone levels
def of estrogen and testosterone
pregnancy
aldosterone deficiency
13. supragingival plaque undergoes which of the following changes with time.
plaque mass decreases
plaque microflora becomes more gram positive
plaque microflora becomes more gram negative
plaque microflora becomes predominantly spirochetal
14. difference between sub and supragingival calculus is related to
pH of saliva
death of leukocytes
hemolysis of erythrocytes
all of the above
15. which of the following is a characteristic of supragingival plaque and not of sub gingival plaque in humans
motile bacteria are predominant
spirochetes are evident microscopically
gram negative bacteria are predominant
bacterial composition is altered by dietary sugar consumption
16. delayed hypersensitivity or cell mediated immune reactions occur in patients with periodontal diseases because they often have
-IgG antibody reactine with plaque bacterial antigens
-T lymphocytes sensitized to plaque bacterial antigens
-soluble immune complexes within involves gingival tissues
-all of the above
17. which of the following is most useful in diffentiating an acute periodontal abscess from pa abscess
-type of exhudate-
-nature of swelling
-intensity of pain
-result of periodontal probing
18. which index would u use to access the severity of periodontitis in epidemiological studiesof a large population.
-pma index
-gingival index
-periodontal index
-sulcus bleeding index
19. which of the following plaque indices does not use disclosing agent
-plaque component of periodontal disease index
-debris component of Simplified Oral Hygiene Index
-modified Quingley Hein plaque index
-all of the above
20. following plaque index divides each tooth surface into 9 areas
-php index
-plaue index by silness and loe
- modified Navy plaque index
- glass criteria for scoring debris
21. in gingivitis, the role of immunoglobulins is consistent with increased number of
-fibroblases
-neutrophils
-lymphocytes
-plasma cells
22. teeth that are least affected by periodontal disease are
-lower first molars and upper anteriors
-lower premolars and upper canines
-lower first molars and upper incisors and premolars
-lower centrals, laterals and upper molars
Q23. dengue hemorrhagic fever caused by
1 bacteria
2 fungi
3 virus
4 bacteria superadded on virus
Q24. Coeliac plexus is located:
1. Anterolateral & around the aorta
2. Posterolateral & around the aorta
3. Anteromedial to lumbar sympathetic chain
4. Posterolateral to lumbar sympathetic chain
Q25. hypercapnia causes
low blood pH
high blood ph
no change
none
Tuesday, January 11, 2011
Friday, August 13, 2010
AIPGE 2005 Dental 20
191. Hodgkin’s disease is diagnosed by finding which cells in the biopsy from lymph glands -
1. Recquet cell.
2. Tzanck cell.
3. Reed Sternberg cell.
4. Lacunar cell.
192. The best laboratory test to use in the diagnosis of Lupus vulgaris in the oral cavity is -
1. Bacterial smear.
2. Blood studies.
3. Biopsy.
4. Blood chemistry.
193. The most common benign tumor occurring in oral cavity is -
1. Papilloma.
2. Fibroma.
3. Adenoma.
4. Epulis.
194. Name the lesion, which is not a radiolucent lesion of the jaws -
1. Ameloblastoma.
2. Cherubism.
3. Focal periapical osteopetrosis.
4. Odontogenic.
195. Name the lesion where cotton wool, multifocal radiodense conglomerates is not seen usually -
1. Gardner’s Syndrome.
2. Cemento-osseous dysplasia.
3. Paget’s disease.
4. Fibrous dysplasia.
196. What is non-characteristic of Eagle’s syndrome?
1. Excessive larimation.
2. Pain during Mandibular movement.
3. Stabbing type pain originates in the tonsillar region.
4. When the jaws are closed the pain subsided.
197. The posterior tooth that gives a better support
is -
1. With convergent roots.
2. Divergent roots.
3. Conical roots.
4. Curved roots.
198. According to the Freudian psychosexual stages of development the stage that corresponds with development of mixed dentition and character formation is –
1. Concrete operational
2. Latency
3. Phallic
4. Genital
199. The range of wavelength of visible light curing system is:
1. 400-700 nm
2. 410-500 nm
3. 365-400 nm
4. 700-900 nm
200. The commonest teeth involved in transposition are:
1. Maxillary central incisor and lateral incisor
2. Maxillary canine and first premolar
3. Maxillary first premolar and second premolar
4. Maxillary canine and lateral incisor
1. Recquet cell.
2. Tzanck cell.
3. Reed Sternberg cell.
4. Lacunar cell.
192. The best laboratory test to use in the diagnosis of Lupus vulgaris in the oral cavity is -
1. Bacterial smear.
2. Blood studies.
3. Biopsy.
4. Blood chemistry.
193. The most common benign tumor occurring in oral cavity is -
1. Papilloma.
2. Fibroma.
3. Adenoma.
4. Epulis.
194. Name the lesion, which is not a radiolucent lesion of the jaws -
1. Ameloblastoma.
2. Cherubism.
3. Focal periapical osteopetrosis.
4. Odontogenic.
195. Name the lesion where cotton wool, multifocal radiodense conglomerates is not seen usually -
1. Gardner’s Syndrome.
2. Cemento-osseous dysplasia.
3. Paget’s disease.
4. Fibrous dysplasia.
196. What is non-characteristic of Eagle’s syndrome?
1. Excessive larimation.
2. Pain during Mandibular movement.
3. Stabbing type pain originates in the tonsillar region.
4. When the jaws are closed the pain subsided.
197. The posterior tooth that gives a better support
is -
1. With convergent roots.
2. Divergent roots.
3. Conical roots.
4. Curved roots.
198. According to the Freudian psychosexual stages of development the stage that corresponds with development of mixed dentition and character formation is –
1. Concrete operational
2. Latency
3. Phallic
4. Genital
199. The range of wavelength of visible light curing system is:
1. 400-700 nm
2. 410-500 nm
3. 365-400 nm
4. 700-900 nm
200. The commonest teeth involved in transposition are:
1. Maxillary central incisor and lateral incisor
2. Maxillary canine and first premolar
3. Maxillary first premolar and second premolar
4. Maxillary canine and lateral incisor
AIPGE 2005 Dental 19
181. Which position is the most important in diagnosis of anterior or posterior crossbite?
1. Habitual position.
2. Lateral shift.
3. Maximum intercuspation.
4. The point of first contact at centric relation.
182. Which of the following forces best accomplish orthodontic tooth movement?
1. Heavy and continuous.
2. Heavy and intermittent.
3. Light and continuous.
4. Light and intermittent.
183. Which of the following is the least stable orthodontic correction?
1. Maxillary expansion.
2. Rotations.
3. Overbite.
4. Overjet.
184. Hyperplasia with regard to tissue growth refers to -
1. An increase in the number of cells.
2. An increase in the size of the cells.
3. Cellular maturation.
4. Cellular differentiation from stem cells.
185. The midpalatal suture is most likely to open at which following ages of expansion?
1. 18 years old.
2. 13 years old.
3. 25 years old.
4. 55 years old.
186. Functional appliances -
1. Only move teeth.
2. Can change the direction of growth.
3. Are fabricated in the original Mandibular position.
4. Correct malocclusion rapidly.
187. According to Wolff’s law -
1. Human teeth drift mesially as interproximal wear occurs.
2. Pressure causes bone resorption.
3. The optimal level of force for moving teeth is 10 to 200 grams.
4. Bone trabeculae line up in response to mechanical stresses.
188. Which of the following teeth is most likely to be congenitally missing?
1. Maxillary central incisor.
2. Mandibular canine.
3. Mandibular second premolar.
4. Maxillary first premolar.
189. The term refers to a type of fusion in which the formed teeth are joined only along the line of cementum -
1. Gemination.
2. Fusion.
3. Concrescence.
4. Dilaceration.
190. Which is a degeneration disorder characterized by atrophic changes of the deeper structures (e.g. fat, muscle, cartilage and bone) involving one side of the face?
1. Scleroderma
2. Parry Romberg Syndrome.
3. Miescher’s Syndrome.
4. Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome.
1. Habitual position.
2. Lateral shift.
3. Maximum intercuspation.
4. The point of first contact at centric relation.
182. Which of the following forces best accomplish orthodontic tooth movement?
1. Heavy and continuous.
2. Heavy and intermittent.
3. Light and continuous.
4. Light and intermittent.
183. Which of the following is the least stable orthodontic correction?
1. Maxillary expansion.
2. Rotations.
3. Overbite.
4. Overjet.
184. Hyperplasia with regard to tissue growth refers to -
1. An increase in the number of cells.
2. An increase in the size of the cells.
3. Cellular maturation.
4. Cellular differentiation from stem cells.
185. The midpalatal suture is most likely to open at which following ages of expansion?
1. 18 years old.
2. 13 years old.
3. 25 years old.
4. 55 years old.
186. Functional appliances -
1. Only move teeth.
2. Can change the direction of growth.
3. Are fabricated in the original Mandibular position.
4. Correct malocclusion rapidly.
187. According to Wolff’s law -
1. Human teeth drift mesially as interproximal wear occurs.
2. Pressure causes bone resorption.
3. The optimal level of force for moving teeth is 10 to 200 grams.
4. Bone trabeculae line up in response to mechanical stresses.
188. Which of the following teeth is most likely to be congenitally missing?
1. Maxillary central incisor.
2. Mandibular canine.
3. Mandibular second premolar.
4. Maxillary first premolar.
189. The term refers to a type of fusion in which the formed teeth are joined only along the line of cementum -
1. Gemination.
2. Fusion.
3. Concrescence.
4. Dilaceration.
190. Which is a degeneration disorder characterized by atrophic changes of the deeper structures (e.g. fat, muscle, cartilage and bone) involving one side of the face?
1. Scleroderma
2. Parry Romberg Syndrome.
3. Miescher’s Syndrome.
4. Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome.
AIPGE 2005 Dental 18
171. The permanent anterior tooth that most often shows variation in size is the -
1. Mandibular canine.
2. Mandibular central incisor.
3. Maxillary canine.
4. Maxillary lateral incisor.
172. Relative to primary mandibular incisors, permanent mandibular incisors erupt -
1. Lingually.
2. Facially.
3. Distally.
4. Mesially.
173. In cephalometrics, the Frankfort plane is constructed -
1. Horizontally from nasion through portion.
2. Horizontally from nasion to the superior aspect of external auditory meatus.
3. Vertically from orbitale through the maxillary canine.
4. Horizontally from orbitale to the superior aspect of the external auditory meatus.
174. The last primary tooth to be replaced by a permanent tooth is usually -
1. Maxillary canine.
2. Mandibular canine.
3. Maxillary first molar.
4. Mandibular second molar.
175. Which is the predominant factor in the formation of the alveolar process?
1. Eruption of teeth.
2. Normal process of growth.
3. Lengthening of the condyle.
4. Overall growth of the bodies of the maxilla and the mandible.
176. Resistance units of equal size pulling against each is an example of which form of
anchorage -
1. Cortical anchorage.
2. Reciprocal anchorage.
3. Reinforced anchorage.
4. Stationary anchorage.
177. A single force applied at which point of a tooth will allow complete translation of the tooth -
1. At the apex.
2. At the incisal edge.
3. At the center of resistance.
4. At the center of rotation.
178. Which of the fibers attached to cementum are most likely to contribute to replace of tooth rotation -
1. Apical fibers.
2. Gingival group of fibers.
3. Horizontal fibers.
4. Oblique fibers.
179. What is the average amount of Leeway space available in the upper arch?
1. 0.9 mm.
2. 1.8 mm.
3. 3.5 mm.
4. 5.0 mm.
180. As age advances, the human profile generally -
1. Remain the same.
2. Increase in convexity.
3. Decreases in convexity.
4. Decreases in concavity.
1. Mandibular canine.
2. Mandibular central incisor.
3. Maxillary canine.
4. Maxillary lateral incisor.
172. Relative to primary mandibular incisors, permanent mandibular incisors erupt -
1. Lingually.
2. Facially.
3. Distally.
4. Mesially.
173. In cephalometrics, the Frankfort plane is constructed -
1. Horizontally from nasion through portion.
2. Horizontally from nasion to the superior aspect of external auditory meatus.
3. Vertically from orbitale through the maxillary canine.
4. Horizontally from orbitale to the superior aspect of the external auditory meatus.
174. The last primary tooth to be replaced by a permanent tooth is usually -
1. Maxillary canine.
2. Mandibular canine.
3. Maxillary first molar.
4. Mandibular second molar.
175. Which is the predominant factor in the formation of the alveolar process?
1. Eruption of teeth.
2. Normal process of growth.
3. Lengthening of the condyle.
4. Overall growth of the bodies of the maxilla and the mandible.
176. Resistance units of equal size pulling against each is an example of which form of
anchorage -
1. Cortical anchorage.
2. Reciprocal anchorage.
3. Reinforced anchorage.
4. Stationary anchorage.
177. A single force applied at which point of a tooth will allow complete translation of the tooth -
1. At the apex.
2. At the incisal edge.
3. At the center of resistance.
4. At the center of rotation.
178. Which of the fibers attached to cementum are most likely to contribute to replace of tooth rotation -
1. Apical fibers.
2. Gingival group of fibers.
3. Horizontal fibers.
4. Oblique fibers.
179. What is the average amount of Leeway space available in the upper arch?
1. 0.9 mm.
2. 1.8 mm.
3. 3.5 mm.
4. 5.0 mm.
180. As age advances, the human profile generally -
1. Remain the same.
2. Increase in convexity.
3. Decreases in convexity.
4. Decreases in concavity.
AIPGE 2005 Dental 17
161. Hypercementosis of the entire dentition is a feature of -
1. Alber Schonberg disease.
2. Paget’s disease.
3. Lathyrism.
4. Low-grade periapical inflammation.
162. Desmodont is another name for -
1. The tooth with one wall pocket.
2. Tooth with three-wall pocket.
3. Periodontal ligament.
4. Dehiscence.
163. The oxygen consumption of normal gingiva is -
1. 1.6 0.37.
2. 0.9 0.22
3. 2.7 0.41.
4. 1.9 0.21.
164. Glucose levels in gingival crevicular fluid (GCF) are -
1. Equal to glucose level in serum.
2. Zero.
3. 3 – 4 times greater than serum levels.
4. More than 10 times the serum levels.
165. A black line on the gingiva, which follows the contour of the margin, is due to -
1. Lead.
2. Argyria.
3. Iron.
4. Mercury.
166. Gracey Curette No. 11-12 are used for -
1. Anterior teeth.
2. Posterior teeth mesial.
3. Posterior teeth distal.
4. Posterior teeth facial and lingual.
167. The brushing technique recommended for patients with periodontal disease is -
1. Scrub technique.
2. Sulcular technique.
3. Roll technique.
4. Circular technique.
168. Embrasure characterized by a slight to moderate recession of interdental papilla are -
1. Type I.
2. Type II.
3. Type III.
4. Type IV.
169. Malocclusion characterized by retroclined central and proclined lateral incisor is -
1. Class II Division I.
2. Class II Division II.
3. Class III.
4. Class I.
170. Six keys to normal occlusion were given by -
1. Andrews.
2. Angie.
3. Tweed.
4. Steiner.
1. Alber Schonberg disease.
2. Paget’s disease.
3. Lathyrism.
4. Low-grade periapical inflammation.
162. Desmodont is another name for -
1. The tooth with one wall pocket.
2. Tooth with three-wall pocket.
3. Periodontal ligament.
4. Dehiscence.
163. The oxygen consumption of normal gingiva is -
1. 1.6 0.37.
2. 0.9 0.22
3. 2.7 0.41.
4. 1.9 0.21.
164. Glucose levels in gingival crevicular fluid (GCF) are -
1. Equal to glucose level in serum.
2. Zero.
3. 3 – 4 times greater than serum levels.
4. More than 10 times the serum levels.
165. A black line on the gingiva, which follows the contour of the margin, is due to -
1. Lead.
2. Argyria.
3. Iron.
4. Mercury.
166. Gracey Curette No. 11-12 are used for -
1. Anterior teeth.
2. Posterior teeth mesial.
3. Posterior teeth distal.
4. Posterior teeth facial and lingual.
167. The brushing technique recommended for patients with periodontal disease is -
1. Scrub technique.
2. Sulcular technique.
3. Roll technique.
4. Circular technique.
168. Embrasure characterized by a slight to moderate recession of interdental papilla are -
1. Type I.
2. Type II.
3. Type III.
4. Type IV.
169. Malocclusion characterized by retroclined central and proclined lateral incisor is -
1. Class II Division I.
2. Class II Division II.
3. Class III.
4. Class I.
170. Six keys to normal occlusion were given by -
1. Andrews.
2. Angie.
3. Tweed.
4. Steiner.
AIPGE 2005 Dental 16
151. Which of the following statement is true with reference to the Glasgow Coma Scale?
1. In the first 24 hrs following a head injury an overall score of 11 indicates a good prognosis.
2. An overall score of less than 9 indicates a poor prognosis.
3. Gives an accurate impression of the neurological status.
4. Cannot be assessed in an unconscious patient.
152. Mucoperiosteal flaps -
1. When raised do not cause postoperative swelling and pain.
2. Are raised whenever bone removal is desired to facilitate extraction.
3. Are routinely raised during extraction.
4. When raised will cause trauma and injury to underlying osseous tissues.
153. A dermatome is used -
1. To remove scar tissue.
2. To harvest skin grafts.
3. To abrade skin which is pigmented.
4. For painting of lacerated soft tissue.
154. In Treacher Collin’s Syndrome their is -
1. Upward sloping of the palpebral fissure.
2. Poorly developed or absent malar bones.
3. Progenia and Mandibular prognathism.
4. No less of hearing.
155. Pierre Robin Syndrome is associated with -
1. Micrognathia.
2. Cleft of the lip and palate.
3. Tetrology of Fallot.
4. Syndactally.
156. Vitamin A -
1. Is water soluble.
2. Deficiency causes impaired vision.
3. Maintains normal plasma calcium levels.
4. Is required for formation of clotting factors.
157. Which of the following is used to show the base of the skull, sphenoid sinus, position and orientation of the condyles and fractures of the zygomatic arch ?
1. The TMJ Surgery.
2. Submentovertex Projection.
3. Reverse-Towne Projection.
4. The Facial Profile Survey.
158. Which survey has the purpose of examining fractures of the condylar neck of the
mandible?
1. Lateral Jaw Projection.
2. Lateral Skull Projection.
3. Waters Projection.
4. Reverse-Townes View.
159. In patients infected with HIV will have -
1. Elevated blastogenesis.
2. Depressed serum globulin levels.
3. High T4-T8 ratio.
4. Thrombocytopenia.
160. Conditional gingival enlargements is usually
not -
1. Hormonal.
2. Leukemic.
3. Granuloma pyogenium.
4. Drug induced.
1. In the first 24 hrs following a head injury an overall score of 11 indicates a good prognosis.
2. An overall score of less than 9 indicates a poor prognosis.
3. Gives an accurate impression of the neurological status.
4. Cannot be assessed in an unconscious patient.
152. Mucoperiosteal flaps -
1. When raised do not cause postoperative swelling and pain.
2. Are raised whenever bone removal is desired to facilitate extraction.
3. Are routinely raised during extraction.
4. When raised will cause trauma and injury to underlying osseous tissues.
153. A dermatome is used -
1. To remove scar tissue.
2. To harvest skin grafts.
3. To abrade skin which is pigmented.
4. For painting of lacerated soft tissue.
154. In Treacher Collin’s Syndrome their is -
1. Upward sloping of the palpebral fissure.
2. Poorly developed or absent malar bones.
3. Progenia and Mandibular prognathism.
4. No less of hearing.
155. Pierre Robin Syndrome is associated with -
1. Micrognathia.
2. Cleft of the lip and palate.
3. Tetrology of Fallot.
4. Syndactally.
156. Vitamin A -
1. Is water soluble.
2. Deficiency causes impaired vision.
3. Maintains normal plasma calcium levels.
4. Is required for formation of clotting factors.
157. Which of the following is used to show the base of the skull, sphenoid sinus, position and orientation of the condyles and fractures of the zygomatic arch ?
1. The TMJ Surgery.
2. Submentovertex Projection.
3. Reverse-Towne Projection.
4. The Facial Profile Survey.
158. Which survey has the purpose of examining fractures of the condylar neck of the
mandible?
1. Lateral Jaw Projection.
2. Lateral Skull Projection.
3. Waters Projection.
4. Reverse-Townes View.
159. In patients infected with HIV will have -
1. Elevated blastogenesis.
2. Depressed serum globulin levels.
3. High T4-T8 ratio.
4. Thrombocytopenia.
160. Conditional gingival enlargements is usually
not -
1. Hormonal.
2. Leukemic.
3. Granuloma pyogenium.
4. Drug induced.
AIPGE 2005 Dental 15
141. Which of the following dentitions shows the highest frequency of occurrence of supernumerary teeth?
1. Maxillary deciduous dentition.
2. Maxillary permanent dentition.
3. Mandibular deciduous dentition.
4. Mandibular permanent dentition.
142. What is the thickness of the layer of prismless enamel found in primary teeth?
1. 25 m.
2. 50 m.
3. 75 m.
4. 100 m.
143. When is the first evidence of calcification of primary teeth?
1. 4 months in-utero.
2. 4 and ½ months in-utero.
3. 5 months in-utero.
4. 6 months in-utero.
144. By what age does the startle and grasp reflex disappear?
1. 1 year.
2. 1 ½ year.
3. 2 years.
4. 3 years.
145. Who proposed the operant conditioning theory of child psychology?
1. Pavlov.
2. Skinner.
3. Jean Piaget.
4. Sigmond Freud.
146. The longest acting local anesthetic is -
1. Prilocaine.
2. Lignocaine.
3. Bupivacaine.
4. Ropivacaine.
147. The first drug of choice to be administered for anaphylaxis is -
1. Hydrocortisone.
2. Adrenaline.
3. Atropine.
4. Chlorpheneramine maliate.
148. In Gillies temporal approach for reduction of Zygomatic arch fracture Rowes Zygomatic Elevator is placed between -
1. Superficial fascia and the temporal fascia.
2. Between the temporal bone and the temporalis muscle.
3. Between the temporal fascia and the temporalis muscle.
4. Skin and superficial fascia.
149. The most lethal of complications due to blood transfusion is -
1. Jaundice.
2. Antigen antibody reaction.
3. Hepatitis B transmission.
4. HIV transmission.
150. In Cardio pulmonary resuscitation chest compressions is done -
1. On the upper part of sternum.
2. On the Xiphisterum.
3. On the middle of the lower part of the sternum.
4. On the left side of the chest.
1. Maxillary deciduous dentition.
2. Maxillary permanent dentition.
3. Mandibular deciduous dentition.
4. Mandibular permanent dentition.
142. What is the thickness of the layer of prismless enamel found in primary teeth?
1. 25 m.
2. 50 m.
3. 75 m.
4. 100 m.
143. When is the first evidence of calcification of primary teeth?
1. 4 months in-utero.
2. 4 and ½ months in-utero.
3. 5 months in-utero.
4. 6 months in-utero.
144. By what age does the startle and grasp reflex disappear?
1. 1 year.
2. 1 ½ year.
3. 2 years.
4. 3 years.
145. Who proposed the operant conditioning theory of child psychology?
1. Pavlov.
2. Skinner.
3. Jean Piaget.
4. Sigmond Freud.
146. The longest acting local anesthetic is -
1. Prilocaine.
2. Lignocaine.
3. Bupivacaine.
4. Ropivacaine.
147. The first drug of choice to be administered for anaphylaxis is -
1. Hydrocortisone.
2. Adrenaline.
3. Atropine.
4. Chlorpheneramine maliate.
148. In Gillies temporal approach for reduction of Zygomatic arch fracture Rowes Zygomatic Elevator is placed between -
1. Superficial fascia and the temporal fascia.
2. Between the temporal bone and the temporalis muscle.
3. Between the temporal fascia and the temporalis muscle.
4. Skin and superficial fascia.
149. The most lethal of complications due to blood transfusion is -
1. Jaundice.
2. Antigen antibody reaction.
3. Hepatitis B transmission.
4. HIV transmission.
150. In Cardio pulmonary resuscitation chest compressions is done -
1. On the upper part of sternum.
2. On the Xiphisterum.
3. On the middle of the lower part of the sternum.
4. On the left side of the chest.
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