131. 1 PPM fluoride implies -
1. 1 mg of fluoride in 1 liter of water.
2. 1 gm of fluoride in 1 liter of water.
3. 0.1 gm of fluoride in 1 liter of water.
4. 1 gm of fluoride in 100 ml of water.
132. Caries activity test that gives a quantitative determination of the acidogenic microorganism in the oral cavity -
1. Fosdick test.
2. Synder test.
3. Abans test.
4. Blawary Reductase test.
133. Class II cavity preparation for amalgam restoration in deciduous teeth requires -
1. More buccolingual extension.
2. More mesiodistal extension.
3. More gingival.
4. More cervical.
134. Amalgam achieves 70% of the strength by -
1. 2 hours.
2. 4 hours.
3. 8 hours.
4. 16 hours.
135. Hand over mouth technique was first described by -
1. Dr. Evangeline Jordan.
2. Addelson and Gold fried.
3. Dr. G. V. Black.
4. Dr. Goldman.
136. Nirous Oxide is a colourless, sweet smelling gas with a density of -
1. 1.5.
2. 0.5.
3. 2.5.
4. 3.5.
137. Oral screen -
1. Causes the child to breathe through the nose.
2. Allows for the passage of air through mouth.
3. Prevents passage of air through nares.
4. Allows the passage of air through mouth and nose.
138. Ormocers are -
1. Organically modified composites.
2. Inorganically modified composites.
3. Organically modified Glass Inomer Cement.
4. Inorganically modified Glass Inomer Cement.
139. Nanotillers are in the range of –
1. 10 – 100 microns.
2. 0.1 – 1 microns.
3. 0.01 – 0.1 microns.
4. 0.005 – 0.01 microns.
140. Speech retardation may be considered if the child does not talk by -
1. 12 months.
2. 18 months.
3. 24 months.
4. 36 months.
Friday, August 13, 2010
AIPGE 2005 Dental 13
121. The average diameter of coronal dentinal tubules near the pulp is -
1. 0.2 – 0.5 microns.
2. 2 – 3 microns.
3. 0.2 – 0.3 microns.
4. 4 – 7 microns.
122. Ecologic determinants of plaque depend on all, except -
1. Sugar content of diet.
2. Host resistance.
3. Age and sex of the patient.
4. Status of dentition.
123. Salivary pellicle is composed of the following, except -
1. Immunoglobulin G.
2. Immunoglobulin A.
3. Amylase.
4. Albumin.
124. Caries detection dye can stain the following, except -
1. Granular nacrotic tissue.
2. Dry, leathery dentin.
3. Reversibly denatured collage.
4. Irreversibly denatured collage.
125. Torsional force is -
1. Compression.
2. Tensile force.
3. Shear.
4. Transverse bending force.
126. All of the following are true for traditional solution, except -
1. It is not necessary in moderately deep cavities under glass ionomer restoration.
2. Have film thickness of 1 – 50 microns.
3. Do not provide thermal or electric insulation.
4. Protect the pulp from reaction products leaching out of restoration.
127. One of the following is not true about treatment of dentinal hypersensitivity with dentin bonding agents -
1. It denatures protein.
2. It forms a hybrid layer.
3. It does not alter dentin permeability.
4. It forms resin tags into dentinal tubule.
128. Which of the following is not true about hand instruments used in operative dentistry?
1. They are generally made of stainless steel.
2. Nickel-Cobalt-chromium is never used in its fabrication.
3. Carbon steel is more efficient than stainless steel.
4. It can be made with stainless steel with carbide inserts.
129. Which one of the following does not commonly survive in a periapical lesion?
1. Pseudomonas.
2. Streptococcus.
3. Porphyromonas.
4. Actinomyces.
130. In endodontic surgery, which of the following about chromic gut suture is not true -
1. It properties are inferior to plain gut suture.
2. It is coated with chromium tri-oxide.
3. It is less biocompatible than plain gut suture.
4. Its absorption is faster than the plain gut sutures.
1. 0.2 – 0.5 microns.
2. 2 – 3 microns.
3. 0.2 – 0.3 microns.
4. 4 – 7 microns.
122. Ecologic determinants of plaque depend on all, except -
1. Sugar content of diet.
2. Host resistance.
3. Age and sex of the patient.
4. Status of dentition.
123. Salivary pellicle is composed of the following, except -
1. Immunoglobulin G.
2. Immunoglobulin A.
3. Amylase.
4. Albumin.
124. Caries detection dye can stain the following, except -
1. Granular nacrotic tissue.
2. Dry, leathery dentin.
3. Reversibly denatured collage.
4. Irreversibly denatured collage.
125. Torsional force is -
1. Compression.
2. Tensile force.
3. Shear.
4. Transverse bending force.
126. All of the following are true for traditional solution, except -
1. It is not necessary in moderately deep cavities under glass ionomer restoration.
2. Have film thickness of 1 – 50 microns.
3. Do not provide thermal or electric insulation.
4. Protect the pulp from reaction products leaching out of restoration.
127. One of the following is not true about treatment of dentinal hypersensitivity with dentin bonding agents -
1. It denatures protein.
2. It forms a hybrid layer.
3. It does not alter dentin permeability.
4. It forms resin tags into dentinal tubule.
128. Which of the following is not true about hand instruments used in operative dentistry?
1. They are generally made of stainless steel.
2. Nickel-Cobalt-chromium is never used in its fabrication.
3. Carbon steel is more efficient than stainless steel.
4. It can be made with stainless steel with carbide inserts.
129. Which one of the following does not commonly survive in a periapical lesion?
1. Pseudomonas.
2. Streptococcus.
3. Porphyromonas.
4. Actinomyces.
130. In endodontic surgery, which of the following about chromic gut suture is not true -
1. It properties are inferior to plain gut suture.
2. It is coated with chromium tri-oxide.
3. It is less biocompatible than plain gut suture.
4. Its absorption is faster than the plain gut sutures.
AIPGE 2005 Dental 12
111. In case, if maxillary canine is missing and we have to make a tooth supported FPD, abutments will be -
1. Central incisor, lateral incisor and 1st pre-molar.
2. Lateral incisor, 1st premolar and 2nd premolar.
3. Lateral incisor and 1st premolar.
4. It depends upon periodontal status of remaining teeth.
112. Pivoting movement better resisted by a tooth preparation if -
1. Diameter is smaller.
2. Diameter is large.
3. Diameter is large and length is small.
4. Do not depend on diameter of tooth.
113. Denture stability refers to resistance of a
denture -
1. To move in a vertical direction away from basal seat.
2. To move in a vertical dimension towards basal seat.
3. To movements on its tissue foundation especially to lateral forces.
4. Against any kind of movement more the 25 m in any direction.
114. Most recent type of denture adhesive is -
1. Salts of Gontrez.
2. Natural gums.
3. Cellulose based salts.
4. Acrylic adhesives.
115. Ideal site for implant placement in a completely edentulous mandible -
1. 1st molar region bilaterally.
2. Retromolar pad area because it is resistant to resorption.
3. Buccal shelf area because it is most ideally suited for loading.
4. Interforaminal region.
116. Beyron point is located at -
1. 13 mm anterior to posterior margin of tragus on a line from center of tragus to outer canthus.
2. 11 mm anterior to posterior margin of tragus on a line from parallel to and 7 mm below FHP.
3. 10 mm anterior to posterior margin of targus on a line from center of tragus to outer canthus.
4. 13 mm anterior to tragus on a line from base of tragus to outer canthus.
117. Pontic design not indicated in anterior region -
1. Ovate pontic.
2. Modified ridge lap pontic.
3. Stein pontic.
4. Spheroidal pontic.
118. Cavity preparation on which location of tooth will give rise to black class I cavity. (Spot the location of caries to make black class I cavity preparation) -
1. 1.
2. 2.
3. 3.
4. 4.
119. Find out the correct contoured buccal surface for food deflection -
1. 1.
2. 2.
3. 3.
4. 4.
120. Which of the following is not true about lubricant for rubber dam placement?
1. Should have water-miscible vehicle.
2. Vaseline is an ideal choice.
3. Should be easy to remove.
4. Should not interfere with bonding procedures.
1. Central incisor, lateral incisor and 1st pre-molar.
2. Lateral incisor, 1st premolar and 2nd premolar.
3. Lateral incisor and 1st premolar.
4. It depends upon periodontal status of remaining teeth.
112. Pivoting movement better resisted by a tooth preparation if -
1. Diameter is smaller.
2. Diameter is large.
3. Diameter is large and length is small.
4. Do not depend on diameter of tooth.
113. Denture stability refers to resistance of a
denture -
1. To move in a vertical direction away from basal seat.
2. To move in a vertical dimension towards basal seat.
3. To movements on its tissue foundation especially to lateral forces.
4. Against any kind of movement more the 25 m in any direction.
114. Most recent type of denture adhesive is -
1. Salts of Gontrez.
2. Natural gums.
3. Cellulose based salts.
4. Acrylic adhesives.
115. Ideal site for implant placement in a completely edentulous mandible -
1. 1st molar region bilaterally.
2. Retromolar pad area because it is resistant to resorption.
3. Buccal shelf area because it is most ideally suited for loading.
4. Interforaminal region.
116. Beyron point is located at -
1. 13 mm anterior to posterior margin of tragus on a line from center of tragus to outer canthus.
2. 11 mm anterior to posterior margin of tragus on a line from parallel to and 7 mm below FHP.
3. 10 mm anterior to posterior margin of targus on a line from center of tragus to outer canthus.
4. 13 mm anterior to tragus on a line from base of tragus to outer canthus.
117. Pontic design not indicated in anterior region -
1. Ovate pontic.
2. Modified ridge lap pontic.
3. Stein pontic.
4. Spheroidal pontic.
118. Cavity preparation on which location of tooth will give rise to black class I cavity. (Spot the location of caries to make black class I cavity preparation) -
1. 1.
2. 2.
3. 3.
4. 4.
119. Find out the correct contoured buccal surface for food deflection -
1. 1.
2. 2.
3. 3.
4. 4.
120. Which of the following is not true about lubricant for rubber dam placement?
1. Should have water-miscible vehicle.
2. Vaseline is an ideal choice.
3. Should be easy to remove.
4. Should not interfere with bonding procedures.
AIPGE 2005 Dental 11
101. Shunting effect occurs in complete dentures -
1. If Occlusal plane is lower in molar area.
2. If Occlusal plane is lower in incisor area.
3. If the Occlusal plane is lower in molar as well as incisor area.
4. When patient has poor muscular co-ordination.
102. Training groove is placed in the lower denture -
1. To train the patients tongue position.
2. In cases of mandibulectomy.
3. To train the orbicularis oris muscle.
4. To train tognetic patients.
103. Which one of the following agent is used as a die hardner?
1. Cynoacrylate.
2. Nail polish.
3. Volalite relief agents.
4. Composite Resin.
104. A gnatho dynameter is used to record -
1. Biting force.
2. Centric relation.
3. Vertical dimensions.
4. FH plane.
105. Important diagnostic tool for achieving accurate implant angulation -
1. Diagnostic template.
2. Wakeup.
3. Mounted diagnostic cast.
4. Surgical template.
106. Cavosuface margin angulation in chamfer finish line is -
1. Always 90o.
2. 90o or less then 90o.
3. 90o or more than 90o.
4. 120o.
107. To increase resistance form of an excessively tapered preparation -
1. Reduce height of preparation to shorten arc of rotation.
2. Increase cervical reduction to taper.
3. Add groove.
4. Use adhesive cement.
108. Face bow is used to transfer -
1. Axis-orbital plane.
2. Frankfort horizontal plane.
3. Camper’s plane.
4. Occlusal plane.
109. For a patient with missing canine what type of prosthesis we will prefer -
1. Three unit FPD.
2. Resin retained FPD.
3. Implant retained crown.
4. It will depend on patient choice.
110. A pier abutment is -
1. Periodontal weak abutment.
2. With an edentulous space on both side of the abutment.
3. Edentulous space one side of the abutment.
4. Abutment adjacent to edentulous space.
1. If Occlusal plane is lower in molar area.
2. If Occlusal plane is lower in incisor area.
3. If the Occlusal plane is lower in molar as well as incisor area.
4. When patient has poor muscular co-ordination.
102. Training groove is placed in the lower denture -
1. To train the patients tongue position.
2. In cases of mandibulectomy.
3. To train the orbicularis oris muscle.
4. To train tognetic patients.
103. Which one of the following agent is used as a die hardner?
1. Cynoacrylate.
2. Nail polish.
3. Volalite relief agents.
4. Composite Resin.
104. A gnatho dynameter is used to record -
1. Biting force.
2. Centric relation.
3. Vertical dimensions.
4. FH plane.
105. Important diagnostic tool for achieving accurate implant angulation -
1. Diagnostic template.
2. Wakeup.
3. Mounted diagnostic cast.
4. Surgical template.
106. Cavosuface margin angulation in chamfer finish line is -
1. Always 90o.
2. 90o or less then 90o.
3. 90o or more than 90o.
4. 120o.
107. To increase resistance form of an excessively tapered preparation -
1. Reduce height of preparation to shorten arc of rotation.
2. Increase cervical reduction to taper.
3. Add groove.
4. Use adhesive cement.
108. Face bow is used to transfer -
1. Axis-orbital plane.
2. Frankfort horizontal plane.
3. Camper’s plane.
4. Occlusal plane.
109. For a patient with missing canine what type of prosthesis we will prefer -
1. Three unit FPD.
2. Resin retained FPD.
3. Implant retained crown.
4. It will depend on patient choice.
110. A pier abutment is -
1. Periodontal weak abutment.
2. With an edentulous space on both side of the abutment.
3. Edentulous space one side of the abutment.
4. Abutment adjacent to edentulous space.
AIPGE 2005 Dental 10
91. Distribution of blood flow is mainly regulated by the -
1. Arteries.
2. Arterioles.
3. Capillaries.
4. Venules.
92. In which of the following a reduction in arterial oxygen tension occurs?
1. Anaemia.
2. CO poisoning.
3. Moderate exercice.
4. Hypoventilation.
93. A 25 year old female presents with 2 year history of repetitive, irresistible thoughts of contamination with dirt associated with repetitive hand washing. She reports these thoughts to be her own and distressing; but is not able to overcome them along with medications. She is most likely to benefit from which of the following therapies.
1. Exposure and response prevention.
2. Systematic desensitization.
3. Assertiveness training.
4. Sensate focusing.
94. Dry mouth during antidepressant therapy is caused blockade of -
1. Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors.
2. Serotonergic receptors.
3. Dopaminergic receptors.
4. GABA receptors.
95. In which one of the following conditions the Sialography is contraindicated?
1. Ductal calculus.
2. Chronic parotitis.
3. Acute parotitis.
4. Recurrent sialadenitis.
96. The most common site of leak in CSF Rhinorrhoea is -
1. Sphenoid sinus.
2. Frontal sinus.
3. Cribriform plate.
4. Tegmen tympani.
97. The technique employed in radiotheraphy to counteract the effect of tumour motion due to breathing is known as -
1. Arc technique.
2. Modulation.
3. Gating.
4. Shunting.
98. Gamma camera in nuclear medicine is used
for -
1. Organ imaging.
2. Measuring the radioactivity.
3. Monitoring the surface contamination.
4. RIA.
99. Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins?
1. IgA.
2. IgG.
3. IgM.
4. IgE.
100. Lumbar sympathectomy is of value in the management of -
1. Intermittent claudication.
2. Distal ischaemia affecting the skin of the toes.
3. Arteriovenuous Fistula.
4. Back pain.
1. Arteries.
2. Arterioles.
3. Capillaries.
4. Venules.
92. In which of the following a reduction in arterial oxygen tension occurs?
1. Anaemia.
2. CO poisoning.
3. Moderate exercice.
4. Hypoventilation.
93. A 25 year old female presents with 2 year history of repetitive, irresistible thoughts of contamination with dirt associated with repetitive hand washing. She reports these thoughts to be her own and distressing; but is not able to overcome them along with medications. She is most likely to benefit from which of the following therapies.
1. Exposure and response prevention.
2. Systematic desensitization.
3. Assertiveness training.
4. Sensate focusing.
94. Dry mouth during antidepressant therapy is caused blockade of -
1. Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors.
2. Serotonergic receptors.
3. Dopaminergic receptors.
4. GABA receptors.
95. In which one of the following conditions the Sialography is contraindicated?
1. Ductal calculus.
2. Chronic parotitis.
3. Acute parotitis.
4. Recurrent sialadenitis.
96. The most common site of leak in CSF Rhinorrhoea is -
1. Sphenoid sinus.
2. Frontal sinus.
3. Cribriform plate.
4. Tegmen tympani.
97. The technique employed in radiotheraphy to counteract the effect of tumour motion due to breathing is known as -
1. Arc technique.
2. Modulation.
3. Gating.
4. Shunting.
98. Gamma camera in nuclear medicine is used
for -
1. Organ imaging.
2. Measuring the radioactivity.
3. Monitoring the surface contamination.
4. RIA.
99. Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins?
1. IgA.
2. IgG.
3. IgM.
4. IgE.
100. Lumbar sympathectomy is of value in the management of -
1. Intermittent claudication.
2. Distal ischaemia affecting the skin of the toes.
3. Arteriovenuous Fistula.
4. Back pain.
AIPGE 2005 Dental 9
81. All of the following are true about manifestations of vitamin E deficiency, except -
1. Hemolytic anemia.
2. Posterior column abnormalities.
3. Cerebellar ataxia.
4. Autonomic dyfunction.
82. Differential expression of same gene depending on parent of origin is referred to as -
1. Genomic imprinting.
2. Mosaicism.
3. Anticipation.
4. Nonpenetrance.
83. Al l of the following statements are true regarding reversible cell injury, except -
1. Formation of amorphous densities in the mitochondrial matrix.
2. Diminished generation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
3. Formation of blebs in the plasma membrane.
4. Detachment of ribosomes from the granular endoplasmic reticulum.
84. All of the following vascular changes are observed in acute inflammation, except -
1. Vasodilation.
2. Stasis of blood.
3. Increased vascular permeability.
4. Decreased hydrostatic pressure.
85. Which one of the following serum levels would help in distinguishing an acute liver disease from chronic liver disease?
1. Aminotransaminase.
2. Alkaline phosphatase.
3. Bilirubin.
4. Albumin.
86. All of the following are topically used sulphonamides, except -
1. Sulphacetamide.
2. Sulphadiazine.
3. Silver sulphadiazine.
4. Mafenide.
87. The group of antibiotics, which possess additional anti-inflammatory and immunooduatory activities, is -
1. Tetracyclines.
2. Polypeptide antibiotics.
3. Fluoroquinolones.
4. Macrolides.
88. One of the following is not penicillinase susceptible -
1. Amoxicillin.
2. Penicillin G.
3. Piperacillin.
4. Cloxacillin.
89. S.A. node acts as a pacemaker of the heart because of the fact that it -
1. Is capable of generating impulses spontaneously.
2. Has rich sympathetic innervations.
3. Has poor cholinergic innervations.
4. Generates impulses at the highest rate.
90. The first physiological response to high environmental temperature is -
1. Sweating.
2. Vasodilatation.
3. Decrease heat production.
4. Non-shivering thermogenesis.
1. Hemolytic anemia.
2. Posterior column abnormalities.
3. Cerebellar ataxia.
4. Autonomic dyfunction.
82. Differential expression of same gene depending on parent of origin is referred to as -
1. Genomic imprinting.
2. Mosaicism.
3. Anticipation.
4. Nonpenetrance.
83. Al l of the following statements are true regarding reversible cell injury, except -
1. Formation of amorphous densities in the mitochondrial matrix.
2. Diminished generation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
3. Formation of blebs in the plasma membrane.
4. Detachment of ribosomes from the granular endoplasmic reticulum.
84. All of the following vascular changes are observed in acute inflammation, except -
1. Vasodilation.
2. Stasis of blood.
3. Increased vascular permeability.
4. Decreased hydrostatic pressure.
85. Which one of the following serum levels would help in distinguishing an acute liver disease from chronic liver disease?
1. Aminotransaminase.
2. Alkaline phosphatase.
3. Bilirubin.
4. Albumin.
86. All of the following are topically used sulphonamides, except -
1. Sulphacetamide.
2. Sulphadiazine.
3. Silver sulphadiazine.
4. Mafenide.
87. The group of antibiotics, which possess additional anti-inflammatory and immunooduatory activities, is -
1. Tetracyclines.
2. Polypeptide antibiotics.
3. Fluoroquinolones.
4. Macrolides.
88. One of the following is not penicillinase susceptible -
1. Amoxicillin.
2. Penicillin G.
3. Piperacillin.
4. Cloxacillin.
89. S.A. node acts as a pacemaker of the heart because of the fact that it -
1. Is capable of generating impulses spontaneously.
2. Has rich sympathetic innervations.
3. Has poor cholinergic innervations.
4. Generates impulses at the highest rate.
90. The first physiological response to high environmental temperature is -
1. Sweating.
2. Vasodilatation.
3. Decrease heat production.
4. Non-shivering thermogenesis.
AIPGE 2005 Dental 8
71. All of the following organisms are known to survive intracellularly, except -
1. Neisseria meningitides.
2. Salmonella typhi.
3. Streptococcus pyogenes.
4. Legionella pneumophila.
72. Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following, except -
1. Tissue culture.
2. Embryonated eggs.
3. Animals
4. Chemically defined media.
73. It is true regarding the normal microbial flora present on the skin and mucous membranes
that -
1. It cannot be eradicated by antimicrobial agents.
2. It is absent in the stomach due to the acidic pH.
3. It establishes in the body only after the neonatal period.
4. The flora in the small bronchi is similar to that of the trachea.
74. The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum?
1. IgG1.
2. IgG2.
3. IgG3.
4. Igg4.
75. A bacterial disease that has been associated with the 3 “Rs” i.e. rats, ricefields, and rainfall is -
1. Leptospirosis.
2. Plague.
3. Melioidosis.
4. Rodent-bite fever.
76. In Radionuclide imaging the most useful radio pharmaceutical for skeletal imaging is -
1. Gallium 67 (67Ga).
2. Technetium-sulphur-colloid (99mTc-Sc).
3. Technetium (99mTc).
4. Technetium –99m linked to Methylene disphosphonate (99mTc-MDP).
77. The most common and earliest manifestation of carcinoma of the glottis is -
1. Hoarseness.
2. Haemoptysis.
3. Cervical lymph nodes.
4. Stridor.
78. Abbey-Estlander flap is used in the reconstruction of -
1. Buccal mucosa.
2. Lip.
3. Tongue.
4. Palate.
79. Androphonia can be corrected by doing -
1. Type 1 Thyroplasty.
2. Type 2 Thyroplasty.
3. Type 3 Thyroplasty.
4. Type 4 Thyroplasty.
80. In which one of the following perineural invasion in head and neck cancer is most commonly seen?
1. Adenocarcinoma.
2. Adenoid cystic carcinoma.
3. Basal cell adenoma.
4. Squamous cell carcinoma.
1. Neisseria meningitides.
2. Salmonella typhi.
3. Streptococcus pyogenes.
4. Legionella pneumophila.
72. Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following, except -
1. Tissue culture.
2. Embryonated eggs.
3. Animals
4. Chemically defined media.
73. It is true regarding the normal microbial flora present on the skin and mucous membranes
that -
1. It cannot be eradicated by antimicrobial agents.
2. It is absent in the stomach due to the acidic pH.
3. It establishes in the body only after the neonatal period.
4. The flora in the small bronchi is similar to that of the trachea.
74. The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum?
1. IgG1.
2. IgG2.
3. IgG3.
4. Igg4.
75. A bacterial disease that has been associated with the 3 “Rs” i.e. rats, ricefields, and rainfall is -
1. Leptospirosis.
2. Plague.
3. Melioidosis.
4. Rodent-bite fever.
76. In Radionuclide imaging the most useful radio pharmaceutical for skeletal imaging is -
1. Gallium 67 (67Ga).
2. Technetium-sulphur-colloid (99mTc-Sc).
3. Technetium (99mTc).
4. Technetium –99m linked to Methylene disphosphonate (99mTc-MDP).
77. The most common and earliest manifestation of carcinoma of the glottis is -
1. Hoarseness.
2. Haemoptysis.
3. Cervical lymph nodes.
4. Stridor.
78. Abbey-Estlander flap is used in the reconstruction of -
1. Buccal mucosa.
2. Lip.
3. Tongue.
4. Palate.
79. Androphonia can be corrected by doing -
1. Type 1 Thyroplasty.
2. Type 2 Thyroplasty.
3. Type 3 Thyroplasty.
4. Type 4 Thyroplasty.
80. In which one of the following perineural invasion in head and neck cancer is most commonly seen?
1. Adenocarcinoma.
2. Adenoid cystic carcinoma.
3. Basal cell adenoma.
4. Squamous cell carcinoma.
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