61. The diagnostic power of a test to correctly exclude the disease is reflected by -
1. Sensitivity.
2. Specificity.
3. Positive predictivity.
4. Negative predictivity
62. In chronic arsenic poisoning the following samples can be sent for laboratory exmination, except -
1. Nail clippings.
2. Hair samples.
3. Bone biopsy.
4. Blood sample.
63. The most reliable criteria in gustafson’s method of identification is -
1. Cementum apposition.
2. Transparency of root.
3. Attrition.
4. Rot resorption.
64. The minimum age at which an individual is responsible for his criminal act is -
1. 7 years.
2. 12 years.
3. 16 years.
4. 21 years.
65. The gold standard for the diagnosis of osteoporosis is -
1. Dual energy X-ray absorptiometry.
2. Single energy X-ray absorptiometry.
3. Ultrasound.
4. Quantitative computed tomography.
66. All of the following can cause osteoporosis, except -
1. Hyperparathyroidism.
2. Steroid use.
3. Fluorosis
4. Thyrotoxicosis
67. Hypercalcemia associated with malignancy is most often mediated by -
1. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
2. Parathyroid hormone related protein (PTHrP).
3. Interleukin – 6 (IL-6).
4. Calcitonin.
68. 5’-Nucleotidase activity is increased in -
1. Bone diseases.
2. Prostate cancer.
3. Chronic rental failure.
4. Cholestatic disorders.
69. Minimal Occlusal clearance on centric cusp for cast metal is -
1. 0.5 mm.
2. 1 mm.
3. 1.5 mm.
4. 2 mm.
70. Vitamin B12 deficiency can give rise to all of the following, except -
1. Myelopathy.
2. Optic atrophy.
3. Peripheral neuropathy.
4. Myopathy.
Friday, August 13, 2010
AIPGE 2005 Dental 6
The amino acid residue having an imino side chain is -
1. Lysine.
2. Histidine
3. Tyrosine.
4. Proline.
52. CO2 is primarily transported in the arterial blood as –
1. Dissolved CO2.
2. Carbonic Acid.
3. Carbamino-hemoglobin.
4. Bicarbonate.
53. ‘Endemic Disease’ means that a disease -
1. Occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy.
2. Is constantly present in a given population group.
3. Exhibits seasonal pattern.
4. Is Prevalent among animals.
54. Which one of the following statements about influence of smoking on risk of coronary heart disease (CHD) is not true?
1. Influence of smoking is independent of other risk factors for CHD.
2. Influence of smoking is only additive to other risk factors for CHD.
3. Influence of smoking is synergistic to other factors for CHD.
4. Influence of smoking is directly related to number of cigarettes smoked per day.
55. What is the color-coding of bag in hospitals to dispose off human anatomical wastes such as body parts?
1. Yellow.
2. Black.
3. Red.
4. Blue.
56. WHO defines adolescent age between -
1. 10 – 19 years of age.
2. 10 – 14 years of age.
3. 10 – 25 years of age.
4. 9 – 14 years of age.
57. The following tests are used to check the efficiency of pasteurization of milk, except -
1. Phosphatase test.
2. Standard plate count.
3. Coliform count.
4. Methylene blue reduction test.
58. For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct, except -
1. Give immunoglobulins for passive immunity.
2. Give ARV.
3. Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage.
4. Immediately wash wound with soap and water.
59. Transplantation of Human Organs Act was passed by Government of India in –
1. 1996.
2. 1993.
3. 1998.
4. 1994.
60. Total Cholesterol level = a + b (calorie intake) + c (physical activity) + d (body mass index) is an example of -
1. Simple linear regression.
2. Simple curvilinear regression.
3. Multiple linear regression.
4. Multiple logistic regression.
1. Lysine.
2. Histidine
3. Tyrosine.
4. Proline.
52. CO2 is primarily transported in the arterial blood as –
1. Dissolved CO2.
2. Carbonic Acid.
3. Carbamino-hemoglobin.
4. Bicarbonate.
53. ‘Endemic Disease’ means that a disease -
1. Occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy.
2. Is constantly present in a given population group.
3. Exhibits seasonal pattern.
4. Is Prevalent among animals.
54. Which one of the following statements about influence of smoking on risk of coronary heart disease (CHD) is not true?
1. Influence of smoking is independent of other risk factors for CHD.
2. Influence of smoking is only additive to other risk factors for CHD.
3. Influence of smoking is synergistic to other factors for CHD.
4. Influence of smoking is directly related to number of cigarettes smoked per day.
55. What is the color-coding of bag in hospitals to dispose off human anatomical wastes such as body parts?
1. Yellow.
2. Black.
3. Red.
4. Blue.
56. WHO defines adolescent age between -
1. 10 – 19 years of age.
2. 10 – 14 years of age.
3. 10 – 25 years of age.
4. 9 – 14 years of age.
57. The following tests are used to check the efficiency of pasteurization of milk, except -
1. Phosphatase test.
2. Standard plate count.
3. Coliform count.
4. Methylene blue reduction test.
58. For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct, except -
1. Give immunoglobulins for passive immunity.
2. Give ARV.
3. Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage.
4. Immediately wash wound with soap and water.
59. Transplantation of Human Organs Act was passed by Government of India in –
1. 1996.
2. 1993.
3. 1998.
4. 1994.
60. Total Cholesterol level = a + b (calorie intake) + c (physical activity) + d (body mass index) is an example of -
1. Simple linear regression.
2. Simple curvilinear regression.
3. Multiple linear regression.
4. Multiple logistic regression.
AIPGE 2005 Dental 5
41. Heme is converted to bilirubin mainly in -
1. Kidney.
2. Liver.
3. Spleen.
4. Bone marrow.
42. HIV can be detected an confirmed by -
1. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
2. Reverse transcriptase
3. Real time PCR.
4. Mimic PCR.
43. All of the following hormones have cell surface receptors, except -
1. Adrenalin.
2. Growth Hormones.
3. Insulin.
4. Thyroxine.
44. Fluoride, used in the collection of blood samples for glucose estination, inhibits the enzyme -
1. Glucokinase.
2. Hexokinase.
3. Enolase.
4. Glucose-6-phosphatase.
45. Osteoclasts are inhibited by -
1. Parathyroid hormone.
2. Calcitonin.
3. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol.
4. Tumor percrosis factor.
46. The protective effects of breast milk are known to be associated with -
1. IgM antibodies.
2. Lysozyme.
3. Mast cells.
4. IgA antibodies.
47. A simple bacteria test for mutagenic carcinogens is -
1. Ames test.
2. Redox test.
3. Bacteriophage.
4. Gene splicing.
48. Both Vitamin K and C are involved in -
1. The synthesis of clotting factors.
2. Post translation modifications.
3. Antioxidant mechanisms
4. The microsomal hydroxylation.
49. Enzymes that moves a molecular group from one molecule to another are known as -
1. Ligases.
2. Oxido – reductases.
3. Transferases.
4. Dipeptidases.
50. The membrane protein, clathrin is involved in -
1. Cell motility.
2. Receptor-mediated endocytosis.
3. Exocytosis.
4. Cell shape.
1. Kidney.
2. Liver.
3. Spleen.
4. Bone marrow.
42. HIV can be detected an confirmed by -
1. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
2. Reverse transcriptase
3. Real time PCR.
4. Mimic PCR.
43. All of the following hormones have cell surface receptors, except -
1. Adrenalin.
2. Growth Hormones.
3. Insulin.
4. Thyroxine.
44. Fluoride, used in the collection of blood samples for glucose estination, inhibits the enzyme -
1. Glucokinase.
2. Hexokinase.
3. Enolase.
4. Glucose-6-phosphatase.
45. Osteoclasts are inhibited by -
1. Parathyroid hormone.
2. Calcitonin.
3. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol.
4. Tumor percrosis factor.
46. The protective effects of breast milk are known to be associated with -
1. IgM antibodies.
2. Lysozyme.
3. Mast cells.
4. IgA antibodies.
47. A simple bacteria test for mutagenic carcinogens is -
1. Ames test.
2. Redox test.
3. Bacteriophage.
4. Gene splicing.
48. Both Vitamin K and C are involved in -
1. The synthesis of clotting factors.
2. Post translation modifications.
3. Antioxidant mechanisms
4. The microsomal hydroxylation.
49. Enzymes that moves a molecular group from one molecule to another are known as -
1. Ligases.
2. Oxido – reductases.
3. Transferases.
4. Dipeptidases.
50. The membrane protein, clathrin is involved in -
1. Cell motility.
2. Receptor-mediated endocytosis.
3. Exocytosis.
4. Cell shape.
AIPGE 2005 Dental 4
31. Mouth guards to prevent accidents to teeth are most practical for -
1. All children.
2. All persons engaged in contact sports.
3. Automobile passengers.
4. Persons on organized athletic team.
32. The arch length preservation can be best carried out by -
1. Placing a lingual arch.
2. Restoring carious teeth.
3. Placing band and loop space maintainer.
4. Placing an acrylic removable space maintainer.
33. The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are -
1. Gram positive organisms.
2. Gram negative organisms.
3. Mycoplasma.
4. Virus infections.
34. Which one of the following drugs has been shown to offer protection from gastric aspiration syndrome in a patient with symptoms of
reflux?
1. Ondansetron.
2. Metoclopramide.
3. Sodium citrate.
4. Atropine.
35. The following statements concerning chorade tympani nerve true except that it -
1. Carries secretomotor fibres to slubmandibular gland.
2. Joins lingual nerve infratemporal fossa.
3. Is a branch of facial nerve.
4. Contains postganglionic parasympathetic fibers.
36. A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical Twin. What type of graft it is ?
1. Xenograft.
2. Autograft.
3. Allograft.
4. Isograft.
37. All of the following physiological processes occur during the growth at the epiphyseal plate, except -
1. Proliferation and hypertrophy.
2. Calcification and ossification.
3. Vasculogenesia and erosion.
4. Replacement of red bone marrow with yellow marrow.
38. Virus mediated transfer of host DNA from one cell to another is known as -
1. Transduction.
2. Transformation.
3. Transcription.
4. Integration.
39. Barr body is found in the following phase of the cell cycle -
1. Interphase.
2. Metaphase.
3. Gl phase.
4. Telophase.
40. Cellular and flagellar movement is carried out by all of the following, except -
1. Intermediate filaments.
2. Actin.
3. Tublin.
4. Myosin.
1. All children.
2. All persons engaged in contact sports.
3. Automobile passengers.
4. Persons on organized athletic team.
32. The arch length preservation can be best carried out by -
1. Placing a lingual arch.
2. Restoring carious teeth.
3. Placing band and loop space maintainer.
4. Placing an acrylic removable space maintainer.
33. The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are -
1. Gram positive organisms.
2. Gram negative organisms.
3. Mycoplasma.
4. Virus infections.
34. Which one of the following drugs has been shown to offer protection from gastric aspiration syndrome in a patient with symptoms of
reflux?
1. Ondansetron.
2. Metoclopramide.
3. Sodium citrate.
4. Atropine.
35. The following statements concerning chorade tympani nerve true except that it -
1. Carries secretomotor fibres to slubmandibular gland.
2. Joins lingual nerve infratemporal fossa.
3. Is a branch of facial nerve.
4. Contains postganglionic parasympathetic fibers.
36. A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical Twin. What type of graft it is ?
1. Xenograft.
2. Autograft.
3. Allograft.
4. Isograft.
37. All of the following physiological processes occur during the growth at the epiphyseal plate, except -
1. Proliferation and hypertrophy.
2. Calcification and ossification.
3. Vasculogenesia and erosion.
4. Replacement of red bone marrow with yellow marrow.
38. Virus mediated transfer of host DNA from one cell to another is known as -
1. Transduction.
2. Transformation.
3. Transcription.
4. Integration.
39. Barr body is found in the following phase of the cell cycle -
1. Interphase.
2. Metaphase.
3. Gl phase.
4. Telophase.
40. Cellular and flagellar movement is carried out by all of the following, except -
1. Intermediate filaments.
2. Actin.
3. Tublin.
4. Myosin.
AIPGE 2005 Dental 3
21. In Jaundice, when there is an unconjugated hyperbilirubinemai is most likely due to -
1. Hepatitis.
2. Cirrhosis.
3. Obstruction of bile canaliculi.
4. Increased breakdown of red cells.
22. A patient with grand mal epilepsy would likely be under treatment with -
1. Meprobamte.
2. Pentobarbital.
3. Trimethadione.
4. Phenytoin.
23. Adam stokes syndrome is caused due to -
1. Atrial fibrillation.
2. Atrial extrasystole.
3. Complete AV block.
4. Ventilation fibrillation.
24. The proper rate of rescue breathing in an adult
is -
1. 4 times per minutes.
2. 12 times per minutes.
3. 20 times per minutes.
4. 28 times per minutes.
25. The rate of injection of intraveneous Valium is -
1. 1 ml / min.
2. 2.5 ml / min.
3. 1 mg / min.
4. 2.5 mg / min.
26. The term best describes a disease transmitted to man through animals –
1. Communicable.
2. Transmissible.
3. Zoonotic.
4. Vertically transmissible.
27. The blood cells responsible for humoral immunity are -
1. T – cells.
2. B – cells.
3. No cells only antibodies.
4. Mostly B – cells sometimes T – cells.
28. Which of the following is not a method of chlorination of water?
1. Perchloron.
2. Ozonation.
3. Chroline gas.
4. Chloramine.
29. Of the following minerals the highest amount found in human body is -
1. Sodium.
2. Calcium
3. Phosphorus.
4. Iron.
30. The threshold dose of fluoride that requires immediate emergency treatment and hospitalization in acute fluoride toxicity is -
1. 4 mg.
2. 5 mg.
3. 6 mg.
4. 7 mg.
1. Hepatitis.
2. Cirrhosis.
3. Obstruction of bile canaliculi.
4. Increased breakdown of red cells.
22. A patient with grand mal epilepsy would likely be under treatment with -
1. Meprobamte.
2. Pentobarbital.
3. Trimethadione.
4. Phenytoin.
23. Adam stokes syndrome is caused due to -
1. Atrial fibrillation.
2. Atrial extrasystole.
3. Complete AV block.
4. Ventilation fibrillation.
24. The proper rate of rescue breathing in an adult
is -
1. 4 times per minutes.
2. 12 times per minutes.
3. 20 times per minutes.
4. 28 times per minutes.
25. The rate of injection of intraveneous Valium is -
1. 1 ml / min.
2. 2.5 ml / min.
3. 1 mg / min.
4. 2.5 mg / min.
26. The term best describes a disease transmitted to man through animals –
1. Communicable.
2. Transmissible.
3. Zoonotic.
4. Vertically transmissible.
27. The blood cells responsible for humoral immunity are -
1. T – cells.
2. B – cells.
3. No cells only antibodies.
4. Mostly B – cells sometimes T – cells.
28. Which of the following is not a method of chlorination of water?
1. Perchloron.
2. Ozonation.
3. Chroline gas.
4. Chloramine.
29. Of the following minerals the highest amount found in human body is -
1. Sodium.
2. Calcium
3. Phosphorus.
4. Iron.
30. The threshold dose of fluoride that requires immediate emergency treatment and hospitalization in acute fluoride toxicity is -
1. 4 mg.
2. 5 mg.
3. 6 mg.
4. 7 mg.
AIPGE 2005 Dental 2
11. Ectodermal dysplasia is -
1. Autosomal recessive.
2. Autosomal dominant.
3. X-linked dominant.
4. X-linked recessive.
12. The normal depth of the gingival crevice in an adult does not exceed -
1. 0.5 – 1 mm.
2. 1 – 2 mm.
3. 1 – 3 mm.
4. 2 – 3 mm.
13. The characteristic lesion of acute necrotizing gingivitis is the necrosis of the gingival mainly of the -
1. Interdental papilla.
2. Marginal gingiva.
3. Attached gingiva.
4. Free gingiva.
14. Cavity formation in a tooth, due to dental caves is due to -
1. Destructive potential of streptococcus mutans.
2. Destructive potential of lactobacillus acidophilus.
3. Lateral spread of cavies along DE junction and weakening of the overlying enamel.
4. Mastectomy force and unrelated to the extent of carious process.
15. Enamel hypoplasia is not a feature of –
1. Osteopetrosis.
2. Downs syndrome.
3. Some types of epidermolysis bullosa.
4. Cleidocranial.
16. Café an lait Spots are seen in -
1. Pagets disease of bone.
2. Cherubism.
3. Von Recklinghausen disease.
17. The drug of choice in management of a patient with an acute allergic reaction involving bronchospasm and hypotension is -
1. Epinephine.
2. Aminophyline.
3. Dexamethasone.
4. Diphenhydramine.
18. The agent of choice to reverse status epilepticus induced by local anesthetic overdose is -
1. Oxygen.
2. Diazepam.
3. Epinephrine.
4. Phenobarbital.
19. A person with glaucoma should not receive -
1. Sedatives.
2. Vasoconstrictors.
3. Antisialogogues.
4. Local anesthetic.
20. Prolonged administration of streptomycin may result in damage to the -
1. Optic nerve.
2. Facial nerve.
3. Auditory nerve.
4. Trigeminal nerve.
1. Autosomal recessive.
2. Autosomal dominant.
3. X-linked dominant.
4. X-linked recessive.
12. The normal depth of the gingival crevice in an adult does not exceed -
1. 0.5 – 1 mm.
2. 1 – 2 mm.
3. 1 – 3 mm.
4. 2 – 3 mm.
13. The characteristic lesion of acute necrotizing gingivitis is the necrosis of the gingival mainly of the -
1. Interdental papilla.
2. Marginal gingiva.
3. Attached gingiva.
4. Free gingiva.
14. Cavity formation in a tooth, due to dental caves is due to -
1. Destructive potential of streptococcus mutans.
2. Destructive potential of lactobacillus acidophilus.
3. Lateral spread of cavies along DE junction and weakening of the overlying enamel.
4. Mastectomy force and unrelated to the extent of carious process.
15. Enamel hypoplasia is not a feature of –
1. Osteopetrosis.
2. Downs syndrome.
3. Some types of epidermolysis bullosa.
4. Cleidocranial.
16. Café an lait Spots are seen in -
1. Pagets disease of bone.
2. Cherubism.
3. Von Recklinghausen disease.
17. The drug of choice in management of a patient with an acute allergic reaction involving bronchospasm and hypotension is -
1. Epinephine.
2. Aminophyline.
3. Dexamethasone.
4. Diphenhydramine.
18. The agent of choice to reverse status epilepticus induced by local anesthetic overdose is -
1. Oxygen.
2. Diazepam.
3. Epinephrine.
4. Phenobarbital.
19. A person with glaucoma should not receive -
1. Sedatives.
2. Vasoconstrictors.
3. Antisialogogues.
4. Local anesthetic.
20. Prolonged administration of streptomycin may result in damage to the -
1. Optic nerve.
2. Facial nerve.
3. Auditory nerve.
4. Trigeminal nerve.
AIPGE 2005 Dental 1
1. In which part of oral cavity mucous membrane is the thinnest?
1. Soft palate.
2. Labial mucosa.
3. Floor of mouth.
4. Buccal mucosa.
2. Which of the following is the normal
arrangement of lingual nerve and vessels in the tongue from medial to lateral?
1. Nerve, artery and vein.
2. Artery, nerve and vein.
3. Vein, artery and nerve.
4. Nerve, artery.
3. Palatine aponeurosis is
1. Tendon of levator veli palatine muscle.
2. Tendon of tensor veli palatine muscle.
3. A part of muscle uvulae.
4. A modification of palatal periosteum.
4. The tactile threshold of the natural teeth during
axial loading is –
1. 0.001 – 0.01 N.
2. 0.01 – 0.10 N.
3. 0.10 – 0.50 N.
4. 1 – 2 N.
5. During Bennett movement or shift of mandible -
1. Condyle of working side exhibit bodily forward movement.
2. Condyle of working side exhibit bodily lateral movement.
3. Condyle of working side exhibit bodily lateral movement.
4. Condyle of working side exhibit bodily lateral and forward movement.
6. Amide – type local anesthetics are metabolized
in the -
1. Serum.
2. Liver.
3. Spleen.
4. Kidneys.
7. Reduced salivary flow following irradiation is dose dependent. At what dose does the flow reach essentially zero?
1. 4000 rads.
2. 5000 rads.
3. 6000 rads.
4. 7000 rads.
8. The cell component that is genetically continuous from one cell generation to the next to -
1. Nuclear membrane.
2. Golgi complex.
3. Central bodies.
4. Chromatin.
9. Golgi bodies are responsible for -
1. Synthesis of polypeptides.
2. Formation of glycoproteins only.
3. Modification and sorting of glycoproteins.
4. Lipid and steroid synthesis.
10. Deficiency of all the three components of coagulation factor VIII result in -
1. Von willebrand’s disease.
2. Haemophilia – A.
3. Parahaemophilia.
4. Haemophilia – B.
1. Soft palate.
2. Labial mucosa.
3. Floor of mouth.
4. Buccal mucosa.
2. Which of the following is the normal
arrangement of lingual nerve and vessels in the tongue from medial to lateral?
1. Nerve, artery and vein.
2. Artery, nerve and vein.
3. Vein, artery and nerve.
4. Nerve, artery.
3. Palatine aponeurosis is
1. Tendon of levator veli palatine muscle.
2. Tendon of tensor veli palatine muscle.
3. A part of muscle uvulae.
4. A modification of palatal periosteum.
4. The tactile threshold of the natural teeth during
axial loading is –
1. 0.001 – 0.01 N.
2. 0.01 – 0.10 N.
3. 0.10 – 0.50 N.
4. 1 – 2 N.
5. During Bennett movement or shift of mandible -
1. Condyle of working side exhibit bodily forward movement.
2. Condyle of working side exhibit bodily lateral movement.
3. Condyle of working side exhibit bodily lateral movement.
4. Condyle of working side exhibit bodily lateral and forward movement.
6. Amide – type local anesthetics are metabolized
in the -
1. Serum.
2. Liver.
3. Spleen.
4. Kidneys.
7. Reduced salivary flow following irradiation is dose dependent. At what dose does the flow reach essentially zero?
1. 4000 rads.
2. 5000 rads.
3. 6000 rads.
4. 7000 rads.
8. The cell component that is genetically continuous from one cell generation to the next to -
1. Nuclear membrane.
2. Golgi complex.
3. Central bodies.
4. Chromatin.
9. Golgi bodies are responsible for -
1. Synthesis of polypeptides.
2. Formation of glycoproteins only.
3. Modification and sorting of glycoproteins.
4. Lipid and steroid synthesis.
10. Deficiency of all the three components of coagulation factor VIII result in -
1. Von willebrand’s disease.
2. Haemophilia – A.
3. Parahaemophilia.
4. Haemophilia – B.
Subscribe to:
Posts (Atom)
