48. True about mycobacterium other than tuberculosis (MOTT)
a) Causes disseminated infection
b) Occurs in persons with normal immunity
c) Causes decreased efficacy of BCG due to cross immunity
d) Person to person trAnsmission is seen
Ans:
49. Life cycle of filaria is
a) Cyclodevelopmental
b) Cyclopropagative
c) Propagative
d) Tran ovarian
Ans: a) Cyclodevelopmental
50. Herpangina is caused by
a) Coxsackie virus
b) HSV
c) HBV
d) EBV
Ans: a)Coxsackie virus
51. TRUE among the following:
a) Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is used by inhalation of rodent urine and feces
b) Kyanasur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal
c) Lyssa virus is trAnsmitted by ticks
d) ……
Ans: a) Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is used by inhalation of rodent urine and feces
Dental materials
52. Purpose of indium in amalgam
a) Eliminate gamma phase
b) Eliminate gamma-2 phase
c) Decrease Hg release on mastication
d) Decrease Hg release on abrasion
Ans
53. Bonding of GIC to tooth structure is brought about by
a) Metal ions
b) Hydroxyl bond
c) Carboxyl bond
Ans
54: Order of setting of GIC is
a) Gelation, migration, post setting contraction
b) …
c) …
d) …
Ans:
55. Action of primer
a) Removal of smear layer
b) Increases surface free energy of dentin
c) Forms thin layer between collagen and resin
d) Bonds with composite
Ans:
56. Polymerization shrinkage of composite causes compression stress of
a) 1 mpa
b) 15mpa
c) 5 mpa
d) 30 mpa
Ans:
57. To increase the efficiency of tungsten Carbide bur
a) Should run only after touching the tooth
b) Run at high speed before touching the tooth
c) Run at low speed before touching the tooth
d) Run before entering the oral cavity
Ans: c) Run at low speed before touching the tooth
Wednesday, December 2, 2009
AIPGE 09 MDS Physiology
Physiology
38. In an obese person, BMI is
a) >10
b) >20
c) >30
d) >40
Ans: c) >30
39. Which of the following increases turbulence in blood flow?
a) Reynolds number less than 2000
b) When velocity is decreased
c) When density of blood decreases
d) When diameter of blood vessel increases
Ans:
40. Pulmonary circulation differs from systemic circulation
a) Pulmonary vasodilatation in hypoxia
b) Pulmonary vasoconstriction in hypoxia
c) Decreased blood volume during systole
d) Increased basal vasoconstrictor tone
Ans: b) Pulmonary vasoconstriction in hypoxia
41. Plasmocytoma of B cell origin is
a) Hodgkin’s lymphoma
b) Plasmocytoma
c) Multiple Myeloma
d) Non hodgkins lymphoma
Ans: c) Multiple myeloma
42. Increase in threshold level on applying sub threshold, slowly rising stimulus is known as
a) Adaptation
b) Accommodation
c) Refractoriness
d) Electrotronus
Ans: Accomodation
43. Which deficiency affects tooth development?
a) Vit. A
b) Carbohydrates
c) Vit. E
d) Vit B
Ans: Vit A
44: In compression osteosynthesis bone heals by
a) Primary union
b) Secondary union
c) Tertiary union
Ans: a) Primary union
45. A paradoxical movement of chest during inspiration and expiration in a patient who has suffered trauma
a) Frail chest
b) Cardiac tamponade
c) Dyspnoea
d) Pneumothorax
Ans:
46. When a minimal injury as a glancing blow is struck, to what variable is it related?
a) Position of strike
b) Area of strike
c) Angulations of strike
d) Location of strike
Ans:
47. In hemophilia, the drug administered before a surgical procedure is
a) Vitamin K
b) Aspirin
c) Epsilon caproic acid
d) Chloral hydrate
Ans; c) Epsilon caproic acid
38. In an obese person, BMI is
a) >10
b) >20
c) >30
d) >40
Ans: c) >30
39. Which of the following increases turbulence in blood flow?
a) Reynolds number less than 2000
b) When velocity is decreased
c) When density of blood decreases
d) When diameter of blood vessel increases
Ans:
40. Pulmonary circulation differs from systemic circulation
a) Pulmonary vasodilatation in hypoxia
b) Pulmonary vasoconstriction in hypoxia
c) Decreased blood volume during systole
d) Increased basal vasoconstrictor tone
Ans: b) Pulmonary vasoconstriction in hypoxia
41. Plasmocytoma of B cell origin is
a) Hodgkin’s lymphoma
b) Plasmocytoma
c) Multiple Myeloma
d) Non hodgkins lymphoma
Ans: c) Multiple myeloma
42. Increase in threshold level on applying sub threshold, slowly rising stimulus is known as
a) Adaptation
b) Accommodation
c) Refractoriness
d) Electrotronus
Ans: Accomodation
43. Which deficiency affects tooth development?
a) Vit. A
b) Carbohydrates
c) Vit. E
d) Vit B
Ans: Vit A
44: In compression osteosynthesis bone heals by
a) Primary union
b) Secondary union
c) Tertiary union
Ans: a) Primary union
45. A paradoxical movement of chest during inspiration and expiration in a patient who has suffered trauma
a) Frail chest
b) Cardiac tamponade
c) Dyspnoea
d) Pneumothorax
Ans:
46. When a minimal injury as a glancing blow is struck, to what variable is it related?
a) Position of strike
b) Area of strike
c) Angulations of strike
d) Location of strike
Ans:
47. In hemophilia, the drug administered before a surgical procedure is
a) Vitamin K
b) Aspirin
c) Epsilon caproic acid
d) Chloral hydrate
Ans; c) Epsilon caproic acid
AIPGE 09 MDS Anatomy
Anatomy
27. Which is not a branch of cavernous part of internal carotid artery?
a) Cavernous branch
b) Inferior hypophyseal
c) Meningeal artery
d) Ophthalmic artery
Ans: d) Ophthalmic artery ooooooooo
28. Which of the following supplies capsule of TMJ
a) Facial nerve
b) Maxillary nerve
c) Auriculotemporal nerve
d) Mandibular nerve
Ans: c) Auriculotemporal nerveoooooooooo
29. Regarding Golgi tendon organ true is
a) Senses dynamic length of muscle
b) Involved in reciprocal innervation
c) Alpha-motor neuron stimulation
d) Senses muscle tension
Ans: d) Senses muscle tension ooooooooo
30. Not a tributary of cavernous sinus
a) Superficial middle cerebral vein
b) Deep petrosal sinus
c) Inferior petrosal sinus
d) Superior petrosal sinus
Ans: a) Superficial middle cerebral vein
31. Sensory branch of mandibular nerve is
a) Mylohyoid
b) Lingual
c) Long buccal
d) Buccal nerve
Ans: d) Long buccal nerve
32. Motor supply of tongue is by
a) Hypoglossal
b) Glossopharyngeal
c) Vagus
d) Facial
Ans: a) Hypoglossal
33. What is the type of joints between ossicles of ear
a) Fibrous joint
b) Primary cartilaginous
c) Secondary cartilaginous
d) Synovial joint
Ans: d) Synovial joint
34. All r composite muscle except
a) Pectineus
b) Rectus femris
c) Adductor magnus
d) Biceps femoris
Ans: b) Rectus femris
35. When does TMJ start developing in utero
a) 2nd week
b) 10th week
c) 20th week
d) 29 week
Ans: b)10th week
36. Premature synostis of coronal suture along with basal sutures is seen in
a) Oxycephaly
b) b\Brachycephaly
c) Trigonocephaly
d) Scandamocephaly
Ans: a) Oxycephaly
37. Not a digastric muscle
a) Occipitofrontalis
b) Sternocleidomastoid
c)
d)
Ans: b) Sternocleidomastoid
27. Which is not a branch of cavernous part of internal carotid artery?
a) Cavernous branch
b) Inferior hypophyseal
c) Meningeal artery
d) Ophthalmic artery
Ans: d) Ophthalmic artery ooooooooo
28. Which of the following supplies capsule of TMJ
a) Facial nerve
b) Maxillary nerve
c) Auriculotemporal nerve
d) Mandibular nerve
Ans: c) Auriculotemporal nerveoooooooooo
29. Regarding Golgi tendon organ true is
a) Senses dynamic length of muscle
b) Involved in reciprocal innervation
c) Alpha-motor neuron stimulation
d) Senses muscle tension
Ans: d) Senses muscle tension ooooooooo
30. Not a tributary of cavernous sinus
a) Superficial middle cerebral vein
b) Deep petrosal sinus
c) Inferior petrosal sinus
d) Superior petrosal sinus
Ans: a) Superficial middle cerebral vein
31. Sensory branch of mandibular nerve is
a) Mylohyoid
b) Lingual
c) Long buccal
d) Buccal nerve
Ans: d) Long buccal nerve
32. Motor supply of tongue is by
a) Hypoglossal
b) Glossopharyngeal
c) Vagus
d) Facial
Ans: a) Hypoglossal
33. What is the type of joints between ossicles of ear
a) Fibrous joint
b) Primary cartilaginous
c) Secondary cartilaginous
d) Synovial joint
Ans: d) Synovial joint
34. All r composite muscle except
a) Pectineus
b) Rectus femris
c) Adductor magnus
d) Biceps femoris
Ans: b) Rectus femris
35. When does TMJ start developing in utero
a) 2nd week
b) 10th week
c) 20th week
d) 29 week
Ans: b)10th week
36. Premature synostis of coronal suture along with basal sutures is seen in
a) Oxycephaly
b) b\Brachycephaly
c) Trigonocephaly
d) Scandamocephaly
Ans: a) Oxycephaly
37. Not a digastric muscle
a) Occipitofrontalis
b) Sternocleidomastoid
c)
d)
Ans: b) Sternocleidomastoid
AIPGE 09 MDS Biochemistry
Biochemistry
18. True about denaturation of proteins are all except:
a) Unfolding occurs
b) Disruption of secondary structure occurs
c) Sequence of amino acids remain the same
d) Biological activity is retained
Ans: d) Biological activity is retained ooooooooo
19. Insulin causes lipogenesis by all except:
a) Increasing acetyl-CoA carboxylase activity
b) Increases the trAnsport of glucose into the cells
c) Inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase
d) Decreases intracellular cAMP level
Ans: c) Inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase
20. True about G protein coupled receptors is:
a) G proteins bind to hormones on the cell surface
b) All the three subunits alpha, beta and gamma should bind each other G protein to act
c) G proteins act as inhibitory and excitatory because of difference in alpha subunit
d) G protein is bound to GTP in resting state
Ans: c) G proteins act as inhibitory and excitatory because of difference in alpha subunit ooooooo
21. Thiamine deficiency causes decreased energy production because
a) It is required for the process of transamination
b) It is co-factor in oxidative reduction
c) It is co-enzyme for transketolase in pentose phosphate pathway
d) It is co-enzyme for pyruvate dehydrogenase
Ans: d) It is co-enzyme for pyruvate dehydrogenase
22. All are true about glutathione except:
a) It is a tripeptide
b) It converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin
c) It conjugates xenobiotics
d) It scavenges free radicals and superoxide ions
Ans: b) It converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin oooooo
23. In molecular cloning, Blue-white screening is used for:
a) To screen for recombinant vectors
b) To detect gene mutations
c) To identify desired chromosomal DNA insert in plasmid vectors
d) To detect host DNA in situ
Ans: c) To identify desired chromosomal DNA insert in plasmid vectors
24. Steroid hormone receptors have attachment site for all except:
a) Steroid hormone
b) Transcription repressors
c) Hormone responsive element
d) Transcription activators
Ans: b) Transcription repressors
25. Why fetal cells continue to divide but terminally differentiated adult do not divide
a) There are many cyclin inhibitors which prevent cell to enter into S phase in adult
b) Phosphatase absent in fetal cells
c) Proteinase is absent in fetus
d) Absence of CD kinase
Ans:
26. All are true about glutathione except:
a) It is a tripeptide
b) It converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin
c) It conjugates xenobiotics
d) It scavenges free radicals and superoxide ions
Ans: It converts methhemoglobin to hemoglobin
18. True about denaturation of proteins are all except:
a) Unfolding occurs
b) Disruption of secondary structure occurs
c) Sequence of amino acids remain the same
d) Biological activity is retained
Ans: d) Biological activity is retained ooooooooo
19. Insulin causes lipogenesis by all except:
a) Increasing acetyl-CoA carboxylase activity
b) Increases the trAnsport of glucose into the cells
c) Inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase
d) Decreases intracellular cAMP level
Ans: c) Inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase
20. True about G protein coupled receptors is:
a) G proteins bind to hormones on the cell surface
b) All the three subunits alpha, beta and gamma should bind each other G protein to act
c) G proteins act as inhibitory and excitatory because of difference in alpha subunit
d) G protein is bound to GTP in resting state
Ans: c) G proteins act as inhibitory and excitatory because of difference in alpha subunit ooooooo
21. Thiamine deficiency causes decreased energy production because
a) It is required for the process of transamination
b) It is co-factor in oxidative reduction
c) It is co-enzyme for transketolase in pentose phosphate pathway
d) It is co-enzyme for pyruvate dehydrogenase
Ans: d) It is co-enzyme for pyruvate dehydrogenase
22. All are true about glutathione except:
a) It is a tripeptide
b) It converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin
c) It conjugates xenobiotics
d) It scavenges free radicals and superoxide ions
Ans: b) It converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin oooooo
23. In molecular cloning, Blue-white screening is used for:
a) To screen for recombinant vectors
b) To detect gene mutations
c) To identify desired chromosomal DNA insert in plasmid vectors
d) To detect host DNA in situ
Ans: c) To identify desired chromosomal DNA insert in plasmid vectors
24. Steroid hormone receptors have attachment site for all except:
a) Steroid hormone
b) Transcription repressors
c) Hormone responsive element
d) Transcription activators
Ans: b) Transcription repressors
25. Why fetal cells continue to divide but terminally differentiated adult do not divide
a) There are many cyclin inhibitors which prevent cell to enter into S phase in adult
b) Phosphatase absent in fetal cells
c) Proteinase is absent in fetus
d) Absence of CD kinase
Ans:
26. All are true about glutathione except:
a) It is a tripeptide
b) It converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin
c) It conjugates xenobiotics
d) It scavenges free radicals and superoxide ions
Ans: It converts methhemoglobin to hemoglobin
AIPGE 09 MDS Pharmacology
Pharmacology
1. First drug to be used in absent seizures:
a) Phenytoin
b) Benzodiazepines
c) Valproate
d) Carbamazepine
Ans: c)Valproate
2. Loading dose depends on:
a) Volume of distribution
b) Clearance
c) Rate of administration
d) Half life
Ans: a)Volume of distribution
3. Drug not used in H. pylori:
a) Metronidazole
b) Omeprezole
c) Mosapride
d) Amoxicillin
Ans: c- Mosapride
4. Drug not used in H pylori
a) Metronidazole
b) Omeprazole
c) Oxytetracycline
d) Bismuth subcitrate
Ans:
5. Long acting beta-2 agonist?
a) Albuterol
b) Salmetarol
c) Pirlbuterol
d) Orciprenaline
Ans: b) Salmetarol
6. Benzodiazepine antagonist ?
a) Flumazenil
b) Naloxone
c) Furazolidone
d) Naltrexone
Ans: a) Flumazenil
7. Cross resistance of isoniazid is seen with:
a) Rifampicin
b) Ethionamide
c) Cycloserine
d) Ethambutol
Ans: b) Ethionamide
8. Which drug is not acetylated?
a) INH
b) Dapsone
c) Hydralazine
d) Metoclopropamide
Ans: d) Metoclopropamide
9.. Which is a prodrug?
a) Enalapril
b) Clonidine
c) Salmeterol
d) Acetazolamide
Ans: a) Enalapril
10.. Which is not a 2nd generation antihistaminic?
a) Loratidine
b) Acrivastatine
c) Cyclizine
d) ……….
Ans: c) Cyclizine
11. Atypical antipsychotic are all except:
a) Olanzepine
b) Clozapine
c) Risperidone
d) Thioridazone
Ans: d) Thioridazone
12. Most common drug causing dry mouth in elderly
a) antihistamines
b) Tranquilizers
c) OCP
d) Antipsychotics
Ans: a) antihistamines
13.Fenastride in prostate hyperplasia.....
a) Alpha blockade
b) 5 alpha hydroxyl inhibition
c) Alpha 1 reductase inhibitor
d) ……
Ans: b) 5 alpha hydroxyl inhibition
14.Nitrous oxide acts as analgesic by
a) Non specific CNS depression
b) Specific action on Trigeminal ganglion
c) Blocking trAnsmission
d) Block dopamine
Ans:
15. Most important factor for calculating dose of NSAIDs in children is
a) Age of child
b) Body weight of child
c) Flavor of salt
d) Extent of pain
Ans: b) Body weight of child
16. In behavior modification, what is the most common route for premedication?
a) Oral
b) Intramuscular
c) Subdermal
d) Intravenous
Ans:a) Oral
17 Most common route for conscious sedation?
a) Intravenous
b) Intradermal
c) Sub mucosal
d) Subdermal
Ans:
1. First drug to be used in absent seizures:
a) Phenytoin
b) Benzodiazepines
c) Valproate
d) Carbamazepine
Ans: c)Valproate
2. Loading dose depends on:
a) Volume of distribution
b) Clearance
c) Rate of administration
d) Half life
Ans: a)Volume of distribution
3. Drug not used in H. pylori:
a) Metronidazole
b) Omeprezole
c) Mosapride
d) Amoxicillin
Ans: c- Mosapride
4. Drug not used in H pylori
a) Metronidazole
b) Omeprazole
c) Oxytetracycline
d) Bismuth subcitrate
Ans:
5. Long acting beta-2 agonist?
a) Albuterol
b) Salmetarol
c) Pirlbuterol
d) Orciprenaline
Ans: b) Salmetarol
6. Benzodiazepine antagonist ?
a) Flumazenil
b) Naloxone
c) Furazolidone
d) Naltrexone
Ans: a) Flumazenil
7. Cross resistance of isoniazid is seen with:
a) Rifampicin
b) Ethionamide
c) Cycloserine
d) Ethambutol
Ans: b) Ethionamide
8. Which drug is not acetylated?
a) INH
b) Dapsone
c) Hydralazine
d) Metoclopropamide
Ans: d) Metoclopropamide
9.. Which is a prodrug?
a) Enalapril
b) Clonidine
c) Salmeterol
d) Acetazolamide
Ans: a) Enalapril
10.. Which is not a 2nd generation antihistaminic?
a) Loratidine
b) Acrivastatine
c) Cyclizine
d) ……….
Ans: c) Cyclizine
11. Atypical antipsychotic are all except:
a) Olanzepine
b) Clozapine
c) Risperidone
d) Thioridazone
Ans: d) Thioridazone
12. Most common drug causing dry mouth in elderly
a) antihistamines
b) Tranquilizers
c) OCP
d) Antipsychotics
Ans: a) antihistamines
13.Fenastride in prostate hyperplasia.....
a) Alpha blockade
b) 5 alpha hydroxyl inhibition
c) Alpha 1 reductase inhibitor
d) ……
Ans: b) 5 alpha hydroxyl inhibition
14.Nitrous oxide acts as analgesic by
a) Non specific CNS depression
b) Specific action on Trigeminal ganglion
c) Blocking trAnsmission
d) Block dopamine
Ans:
15. Most important factor for calculating dose of NSAIDs in children is
a) Age of child
b) Body weight of child
c) Flavor of salt
d) Extent of pain
Ans: b) Body weight of child
16. In behavior modification, what is the most common route for premedication?
a) Oral
b) Intramuscular
c) Subdermal
d) Intravenous
Ans:a) Oral
17 Most common route for conscious sedation?
a) Intravenous
b) Intradermal
c) Sub mucosal
d) Subdermal
Ans:
Wednesday, November 18, 2009
AIIMS Nov 2007 Test Paper
ANATOMY
1. Which one of the following is a junction of frontal, parietal, temporal & greater wing of sphenoid bone?
A. Pterion
B. Lambda
C. Vertex
D. Inion.
1. Answer is: A- Pterion.
(Ref: B.D.Chaurasia- 3rd Vol- 3rd Ed/ pg 7). Repeat AIPG-06.
2. A non-synovial joint with dense connective tissue between two bony surfaces is termed as:
A. Synchondrosis
B. Syndesmosis
C. Symphysis
D. Suture.
2. Answer is: D- Suture.
(Ref: Gray’s Anatomy- 39th Ed/ pg 103).
PHYSIOLOGY
3. Lysis of fibrin is brought about by:
A. Plasmin
B. Hyaluronidase
C. Collagenase
D. Coagulase
3. Answer is: A- Plasmin.
(Ref. K.D. Tripathi-5th Ed/ Pg 569)
4. Normal hemoglobin in adults is designated as:
A. Hb H
B. Hb S
C. Hb A
D. Hb F
4. Answer is: C- Hb A.
(Ref: Ganong 18th Ed / 497)
5. Which one of the following is true after exercise?
A. Cerebral blood flow increases if there is an increase in systolic blood pressure.
B. Blood flow to muscle increases in 30 seconds.
C. Body temperature increases.
D. Lymphatic flow to the muscle decreases.
5. Answer is: C- Body temperature increases.
(Ref: Ganong 18th Ed / 588-90)
6. Which one of the following statements is true when a normal person lies down?
A. The heart rate settles above that of normal.
B. There is an immediate increase in the venous return.
C. Cerebral blood flow increases.
D. Blood flow to apex of the lung decreases.
6. Answer is: B- There is an immediate increase in the venous return.
(Ref: Ganong 18th / 587)
7. A complex factor mucopolysaccharide present in lung and liver that also prevents coagulation of blood is:
A. Heparin.
B. Plasmin
C. Acetylsalicylic acid.
D. Histamine.
7. Answer is: A- Heparin.
(Ref: K.D. Tripathi 5th / 561)
8. About Nitric oxide all of the following is true except:
A. It causes penile erection.
B. It acts via c-AMP.
C. It decreases the vasomotor tone.
D. It is present in cigarette smoke.
8. Answer is: B-It acts via cyclic-AMP.
(Ref: Harper 24th Ed / 699. KDT 5th Ed / 489)
BIOCHEMISTRY
9. Poly Unsaturated Fatty Acids are present in all of the following except:
A. Mustard oil
B. Corn oil
C. Ground nut oil.
D. Fish oil.
9. Answer is: A-Mustard Oil.
(Ref: Park 16th / Page 407)
10. Iron is present in all of the following except:
A. Myoglobin.
B. Catalase.
C. Cytochrome.
D. Pyruvate kinase.
10. Answer is: D- Pyruvate kinase
(Ref: Park -11th Ed /Pg 449) Repeat AIPG-06
11. Enzyme that regulates the conversion of ethanol to acetaldehyde is:
A. Alcohol dehydrogenase.
B. Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase.
C. Catalase.
D. Xanthene oxidase.
11. Answer is: A- Alcohol dehydrogenase.
(Ref. K.D.T. 5th / 351)
12. Which of the following enzyme at a pH of 8.6 has a function in bone mineralization and hydrolysis of phosphoric esters?
A. Acid phosphatase.
B. Alkaline phosphatase.
C. Collagenase.
D. Hyaluronidase.
12. Answer is: B- Alkaline phosphatase.
(Ref. Harper 24th Ed / Page 680)
13. Amino acid residue used in detection of strength of Collagen:
A. Proline
B. Hydroxyproline
C. Glycine
D. Hydroxyglycine.
13. Answer is: B- Hydroxyproline.
(Ref: Harper 24th / 669)
DENTAL MATERIALS
14. The angle between adhesive & adherent is zero degree. This indicates:
A. Rough surface between adhesive & adherent.
B. Presence of irregularities between the adherent surfaces.
C. Complete wetting of the surfaces.
D. Molecules of adhesive & adherent are at a tangent to each other.
14. Answer is: C- Complete wetting of surfaces
(Ref: Phillips-11th Ed/Pg 37, Phillips-10th Ed/Pg 28) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
15. Which of the following is true regarding lathe cut silver alloy?
A. Has low creep.
B. Requires least amount of mercury.
C. Has tensile strength, both at 15 mins & 7 days comparable to high copper Unicompositional alloys.
D. Achieves lowest compressive strength at 1 hour.
15. Answer is: D- Achieves lowest compressive strength at 1 hour.
(Ref: Craig, Restorative dental materials-11th Ed/Pg 295-97) Repeat AIPG-06.
16. Which of the following is true regarding corrosion of Amalgam restoration?
A. It can extend upto a depth of 100-500 microns.
B. Decreases if tin content of alloy decreases.
C. Is promoted by gamma phase of alloy particles.
D. Is resisted most by cooper-tin phase in high copper amalgam.
16. Answer is: A- It can extend upto a depth of 100-500 microns.
(Ref: Craig-10th Ed/Pg 222; Sturdevant 4th/ Pg 154) Repeat AIPG-06.
17. Over-trituration of silver & mercury causes:
A. Reduction in contraction.
B. Increases strength in lathe cut but reduces strength in spherical alloy.
C. Gives a dull & crumbly amalgam mix.
D. Decreases the creep.
17. Answer is: B- Increases the strength of lathe-cut alloy but reduces the strength of spherical alloy amalgam.
(Ref: Craig 10th/226, 227) Repeat AIPG-06
18. Poisson’s ratio is:
A. Lateral strain by axial strain within elastic limit.
B. Equal to flexural strength.
C. Is more in amalgam.
D. Is low for gold alloy.
18. Answer is: A- Lateral strain by axial strain within elastic limit.
(Ref. Craig 10th Ed / 66, Skinner 11th Ed / 85)
19. Strain is:
A. New length upon original length after a load is applied.
B. Original length upon new length after a load is applied.
C. Force applied to change the length.
D. Difference between the two lengths upon original length.
19. Answer is: D- Difference between the two lengths upon original length.
(Ref: Skinner 11th / 73 & 74; Craig 10th / 66)
MICROBIOLOGY
20. Most commonly used selective medium for Streptococcus mutans is:
A. MacConkey’s medium.
B. Mitis-Salivarius-Bacitracin agar.
C. Nutrient agar.
D. Tellurite medium
20. Answer is: B- Mitis salivarius bacitracin agar.
(Ref: Soben Peter 2nd / 375) Repeat AIPG-06
PATHOLOGY
21. All of the following is true about Cerebral edema except:
A. Can result in herniation of the brain from foramen magnum.
B. Results from increased lymphatic drainage.
C. Results in an increase in intracranial pressure.
D. Can result from an increase in plasma protein concentration.
21. Answer is: B- Results from increased lymphatic drainage.
(Ref: Kumar-Cotran-Robbin’s-7th Ed/ Pg 811)
22. Apoptosis is suggestive of:
A. Coagulative necrosis.
B. Liquefactive degeneration.
C. Neoangiogenesis.
D. Epithelial dysplasia.
22. Answer is: B- Liquefactive degeneration.
(Ref: Kumar-Cotran-Robbin’s-7th Ed/ Pg 811) Repeat AIPG-06.
PHARMACOLOGY
23. Long term use of Aspirin causes:
A. Decreased platelet adhesion.
B. Decrease in fibrinogen formation.
C. Hypoprothrombinemia.
D. None of the above.
23. Answer is: C- Hypoprothrombinemia.
(Ref: K.D.T. 5th / 172 &159)
24. Which of the following is true about Benzodiazepines?
A. In higher quantities, it is relatively safer than other hypnotics.
B. Alters the sleep pattern to a great extent.
C. Stimulates hepatic metabolic enzymes.
D. All have metabolically active substrates.
24. Answer is: A- In Higher quantities, it is relatively safer than other hypnotics.
(Ref: K.D.T. 5th / 361)
25. I.V. Diazepam in a patient on the dental chair can cause:
A. Tinel’s sign.
B. Verill’s sign.
C. Bell’s sign.
D. Corman’s sign
25. Answer is: B- Verill’s sign
(Ref. Neelima Malik 1st Ed. / 650) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06
26. Drug that can result in hyperglycemia is:
A. Beta blockers.
B. ACE inhibitors.
C. Glucocorticoids.
D. NSAIDs.
26. Answer is: C-Glucocorticoids.
(Ref: KDT 5th Ed / Pg 256)
DENTAL HISTOLOGY
27. Type of Collagen found in principle fibres is:
A. Type-I.
B. Type-II.
C. Type-III.
D. Type-IV.
27. Answer is: A. Type I
(Ref: Carranza -9th Ed/Pg 37)
GENERAL MEDICINE
28. All of the following lead to severe adverse effects except:
A. Death.
B. Diabetes.
C. Prolonged hospitalization.
D. Immobility.
28. Answer is: B- Diabetes.
(Ref: Still searching….)
29. One of the following can be used in the management of a hemophilic patient:
A. Ascorbic acid.
B. Tranexamic acid.
C. Ascorbic acid.
D. Palmitoic acid.
29. Answer is: B- Tranexamic acid
(Ref. Neelima Malik 1st Ed. / 681) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
P.S.M & COMMUNITY DENTISTRY
30. Regarding Case control, all of the following are true except:
A. Risk factors can be identified.
B. It can be used in the study of rare diseases.
C. It measures incidence.
D. It requires few subjects.
30. Answer is: C- It measures incidence
(Park- 18th / 68 table 13) Repeat AIPG-06.
31. Break point chlorination indicates:
A. Start of chlorination process.
B. End of chlorination process.
C. Point where free residual chlorine starts appearing.
D. Point after partial saturation of water with chlorine.
31. Answer is: C- Point where free residual chlorine starts appearing.
(Ref: Soben P- 2nd / 778) Repeat AIPG-06.
32. Square root of pq/n indicates:
A. Standard error of mean.
B. Standard error of difference in means.
C. Standard error of proportion.
D. Standard error of difference in proportions.
32. Answer is: C- Standard error of proportions.
(Ref: Park-18th /649) Repeat AIPG-06.
33. True regarding Randomized Controlled Trial:
A. Baseline characteristics of intervention and control groups should be similar.
B. Investigator’s bias is minimized by double blinding.
C. Help ensure that study subjects are a part of the general population.
D. Reduce selection bias in allocation of treatment.
33. Answer is: D- Reduce selection bias in allocation to treatment
(Ref: Park 18th / 76) Repeat AIPG-06.
34. All of the following is true regarding informed consent except:
A. Patient must be informed about alternative procedures & their benefits.
B. Risk factors involved in the procedure must be explained.
C. Benefits of treatment likely to result must be highlighted.
D. Concealment of procedures which are beneficial may be done knowingly.
34. Answer is: D- Concealment of procedures which are beneficial may be done knowingly.
(Ref: Soben Peter 3rd / 773)
35. Good clinical practice is not essential in:
A. Preclinical studies.
B. Phase-I studies.
C. Phase-II studies.
D. Phase-IV studies.
35. Answer is: A- Preclinical studies.
36. Number of teeth used in modified PHP index is:
A. 6
B. 12
C. 18
D. 24
36. Answer is: A- 6.
(Ref: Soben Peter 3rd / 135-36)
ORAL PATHOLOGY
37. Pemphigus vulgaris is characterised by:
A. Acanthosis.
B. Auspitz sign
C. Acantholysis.
D. Wickham’s striae.
37. Answer is: C- Acantholysis
(Ref: Shafer 5th /1128) Repeat AIPG-06.
38. One of the following is an oral precancerous lesion:
A. Oral hairy leukoplakia.
B. Hairy B-cell leukemia.
C. White sponge nevus.
D. Speckled leukoplakia.
38. Answer is: D- Speckled leukoplakia
(Ref: Burket- 10th / Pg 102) Repeat AIPG-06.
39. Important organism causing dentinal caries is:
A. Streptococcus mutans.
B. Streptococcus viridans.
C. Borrelia vincenti.
D. Actinomyces actinobacillus.
39. Answer is: A- Streptococcus mutans.
(Ref: Shafer 5th /575) Repeat AIPG-06.
40. In taurodontism affected teeth exhibit:
A. Elongated large pulp chambers, short roots
B. Elongated small pulp chambers, short roots.
C. Elongated large pulp chambers, large roots.
D. Elongated small pulp chambers, large roots.
40. Answer is: A- Elongated large pulp chambers and short roots.
(Ref: Shafer 5th / 60) Repeat AIPG-06.
41. Dens in dente is most commonly seen in:
A. Premolars
B. Lateral incisors.
C. Paramolars
D. Maxillary canines.
41. Answer is: B- Lateral incisors
(Ref: Shafer 5th / 57) Repeat AIPG-06.
42. A tumor of oral cavity represented as T3N2M0 is classified as:
A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III
D. Stage IV
42. Answer is: D- Stage IV
(Ref: Harrison-16th /505)
43. Blanching of the oral mucosa is associated with:
A. Scleroderma.
B. Riboflavin deficiency
C. Oral sub mucous fibrosis.
D. Thiamine deficiency.
43. Answer is: C- Oral submucous fibrosis.
(Ref. Shafer’s 5th Ed/ 136, 4th Ed/ 109)
44. Rigidity of the oral mucosa is seen with:
A. Oral sub mucous fibrosis.
B. Cicatricial pemphigoid.
C. Healed lesions of aphthous stomatitis.
D. None of the above.
44. Answer is: A- Oral submucous fibrosis.
(Ref: Above answer & Pathology of head and neck tumors- Leon Barnes.)
45. Bilateral spongy folded mucosa is seen in:
A. Candidiasis.
B. White sponge nevus.
C. Aspirin burns.
D. Leukoplakia.
45. Answer is: B- White sponge nevus
(Ref: Shafer/ 4th- 825)
46. White patch on the buccal mucosa which disappears on stretching is:
A. Leukoplakia.
B. White sponge nevus.
C. Scleroderma.
D. Leucoedema.
46. Answer is: D- Leucoedema.
(Ref: Burket/ 10th- 86)
47. Most common site of occurrence of lateral periodontal cyst is:
A. Between maxillary premolars.
B. Mandibular third molar area.
C. Maxillary tuberosity area.
D. Between mandibular cuspid & premolar.
47. Answer is: D- Between the mandibular cuspid and first premolar.
(Ref: Shafer 5th / 372) Repeat AIPG-06.
48. In leukemic patient bleeding does not stop because of:
A. Decreased platelet count.
B. Increased WBC count.
C. Increased calcium levels.
D. Decrease in coagulation factor levels.
48. Answer is: A- Decreased platelet count.
(Ref: Carranza -9th Ed/ Pg 216) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
49. Increased alkaline phosphatase levels are seen with:
A. Paget’s disease.
B. Hypophosphatasia.
C. Cherubism.
D. Hyperparathyroidism.
49. Answer is: A- Paget’s disease.
(Ref: Shafer/ 5th -1001)
50. In lead poisoning gingival discoloration presents as:
A. Blue-black line.
B. Yellow line.
C. Grayish black line.
D. Steel gray line.
50. Answer is: A- Blue black/ C- Grayish black line/ D- Steel gray
(Ref: Carranza 9th /223; Shafer 5th Ed/774; Burket 8th/ 302)
51. Dilaceration occurs due to:
A. Trauma to the tooth germ during root development.
B. Abnormal displacement of the tooth germ during root development.
C. Abnormal displacement of enamel epithelium during tooth development.
D. Abnormal displacement of ameloblasts during tooth development.
51. Answer is: A- Trauma to the tooth germ during root development.
(Ref: Shafer -5th Ed/ 56) Repeat AIPG-06
52. Which of the following is true about Xerostomia?
A. pH of saliva increases.
B. pH of saliva decreases.
C. pH of saliva increases in morning & decreases in evening.
D. pH of saliva remains unchanged.
52. Answer is: B- pH of saliva decreases. (Most probably)
(Ref: Shafer 4th/33-34, Burket-10th /222).
53. Diagnosis of Periapical Cemental Dysplasia is done by:
A. Vitality tests.
B. Radiographs.
C. Percussion.
D. Examination of the lamina dura.
53. Answer is: A- Vitality tests (Most probably)
(Ref: White and Pharoah -5th / 495)
54. Toluidene blue stain is used to distinguish between:
A. Pemphigus & lichen planus.
B. Leukoplakia & lichen planus.
C. Detection of malignant transformation.
D. Candidiasis & leukoplakia.
54. Answer is: C- Detection of malignant transformation.
(Ref: Burket- 10th / 106)
ORAL RADIOLOGY
55. Radiographically, driven snow appearance is seen with:
A. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumour
B. Calcifying odontogenic cyst
C. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumour
D. Keratocyst
55. Answer is: C- Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumour
(Ref: Shafers 5th / 392) Repeat AIPG-06.
56. Disadvantage of a grid is:
A. Increases exposure time.
B. Decreases clarity.
C. Causes blurring of image.
D. More skin dose.
56. Answer is: A- Increases exposure time.
(Ref: White and Pharoah -5th / 85) AIIMS-NOV-05
57. Consistent radiographs are maintained by:
A. Constant mA & kVp.
B. Automatic processing.
C. Using long cone technique
D. Fixed processing time.
57. Answer is: B- Automated processing. (My guess)
(Ref: White & Pharoah 5th / 103)
58. Contrast on a radiograph is:
A. Dark areas on a radiograph.
B. Range of densities on a radiograph.
C. Overall darkening of the radiograph.
D. Light areas on the radiographs.
58. Answer is: B- Range of densities on a radiograph.
(Ref: White & Pharoah -5th / 392)
59. True about parallax technique:
A. Increases image clarity
B. Decreases distortion of the image.
C. Gives relative image of object.
D. Decreases image clarity.
59. Answer is: D- Decreases image clarity.
(Ref: White & Pharoah- 5th / 83) AIIMS-NOV-05
ORAL SURGERY
60. Most common reason for the removal of impacted mandibular third molars is:
A. Referred pain.
B. Recurrent pericoronitis.
C. Chronic periodontal disease.
D. Orthodontic treatment.
60. Answer is: B- Recurrent Pericoronitis.
(Ref: Shafer- 5th/86) Repeat AIPG-06.
61. Which of the following is the correct reason for facial nerve injury during forcep extraction?
A. The mastoid process is absent at birth
B. The parotid glands is in developing stage
C. The beak of the forceps engages the main trunk of facial nerve
D. The sublingual hematoma during delivery causes neuropraxia.
61. Answer is: A- The mastoid process is absent at birth
(Ref: Dutta- Obs and Gynec.- 5th Ed/ 591) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
62. Incidence of osteoradionecrosis is increased in following cases:
A. Extraction following radiotherapy.
B. Leukaemic patients.
C. Patients on hyperbaric oxygen therapy.
D. Xerostomia
62. Answer is: A- Extraction following radiotherapy.
(Ref. Neelima Malik :1st Ed/616-621)
63. Syncope results from:
A. Cerebral edema
B. Cerebral hyperemia
C. Cerebral hypoxia
D. Cerebral degeneration
63. Answer is: C- Cerebral hypoxia
(Ref. Davidson’s- 18th Ed. / 225, Ref. Monheims- 7th Ed. / 238) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
PERIODONTOLOGY
64. A papilla preservation flap is indicated in:
A. Horizontal bone loss in upper anterior region.
B. Infrabony defects.
C. Crater type bony defect.
D. One walled defect.
64. Answer is: A- Horizontal bone loss in upper anterior region.
(Ref: Carranza 9th/ 723) Repeat AIPG-06.
65. A procedure done to eliminate periodontal pocket & increase the width of attached gingiva is termed as:
A. Laterally displaced flap.
B. Apically displaced flap.
C. Papilla preservation flap.
D. Modified Widman flap.
65. Answer is: B- Apically displaced flap.
(Ref: Above question & chart)
66. Role of barrier membrane in GTR is:
A. To help overall healing.
B. Prevention of epithelial migration.
C. Arrest of bleeding.
D. Prevent the infection from reaching the underlying tissues.
66. Answer is: B- Prevention of epithelial migration
(Ref: Carranza 9th/809) Repeat AIPG-06
67. Biofilm found on tooth surface is termed as:
A. Enamel.
B. Dental plaque.
C. Saliva.
D. Dentinal caries.
67. Answer is: B- Dental Plaque
(Ref: Carranza 9th/97) Repeat AIPG-06.
68. Periodontitis that does not resolve with treatment is termed as:
A. Aggressive periodontitis.
B. Chronic periodontitis.
C. Refractory periodontitis.
D. Juvenille periodontitis.
68. Answer is: C- Refractory periodontitis.
(Ref: Carranza 10th/ 243)
69. Peripheral buttressing bone formation effect is termed as:
A. Ledges.
B. Craters.
C. Hemiseptum.
D. Lipping.
69. Answer is: D- Lipping.
(Ref: Carranza 9th/ Pg 362,365-66)
PROSTHODONTICS
70. Modification in Kennedy’s classification is:
A. Number of spaces present anterior to the remaining teeth.
B. Number of spaces present after the basic classification.
C. Edentulous spaces posterior to all the teeth.
D. Additional spaces in class-IV.
70. Answer is: B- Number of spaces present after the basic classification.
(Ref. McCracken’s removable partial denture: 11th Ed/pg 22)
71. One of the following is true about a pier abutment:
A. Presence of edentulous space mesial to the abutment tooth.
B. Presence of edentulous space distal to the abutment tooth.
C. Presence of edentulous spaces on both sides of the abutment tooth.
D. A periodontally weak abutment.
71. Answer is: C- Presence of edentulous spaces on both sides of the abutment tooth.
(Ref. Nallaswamy 1st Ed/ pg 550)
72. The correct placement of an indirect retainer is:
A. Near the fulcrum line.
B. Away from the fulcrum line.
C. Near the direct retainer.
D. Near the edentulous area.
72. Answer is: B- Away from the fulcrum line.
(Ref. McCracken’s: 11th Ed/Pg 156)
73. Lingual bar is: (size & shape)
A. 6 gauge, pear shaped.
B. 4 gauge, pear shaped.
C. 6 gauge, half pear shaped.
D. 4 gauge, half pear shaped.
73. Answer is: C- 6 gauge, half pear shaped.
(Ref. McCracken’s: 11th Ed/Pg 39)
74. Correct indication for a lingual plate is:
A. When the lingual sulcus is deep.
B. When the ridge is not strong enough to support the teeth.
C. When more number of anterior teeth are involved.
D. Any of the above can be an indication.
74. Answer is: C- When more number of anterior teeth are involved.
(Ref. McCracken’s: 11th Ed/Pg 42, 61)
75. Disadvantage of a flexible major connector is:
A. Causes other components of the RPD to become more effective.
B. Causes overload & periodontal destruction of the abutment teeth.
C. Decreased retention.
D. -----------
75. Answer is: B- Causes overload & periodontal destruction of the abutment teeth.
(Ref. McCracken’s: 11th Ed/Pg 35-36)
OPERATIVE DENTISTRY
76. Permeability of dentin does not depend upon:
A. Smear layer.
B. Diffusion co-efficient of fluid.
C. Convection of fluid
D. Length of dentinal tubules.
76. Answer is: Still searching
77. Incipient or recurrent caries can be detected before they are visible on a radiograph by:
A. Visible light.
B. Ultrasonic light.
C. Fibre optic trans-illumination.
D. Digital Fibre optic trans-illumination.
77. Answer is: D- Digital Fibre optic trans-illumination.
(Ref. Damle 3rd Ed/ 51, Internet references) Repeat AIPG-06.
78. Resistance form is that shape of a cavity which:
A. Prevents displacement of restoration.
B. Permits restoration to withstand occlusal forces.
C. Prevents displacement of restoration & Permits restoration to withstand occlusal forces.
D. Allows for adequate instrumentation.
78. Answer is: B- Permits restoration to withstand occlusal forces.
(Ref. Sturdevant’s: 4th Ed/pg 290)
79. Pin used in pin retained restoration of an endodontically treated tooth is:
A. Cemented.
B. Friction locked.
C. Self threaded.
D. Any of the above.
79. Answer is: A- Cemented pin
(Ref: Sturdevant- 2nd Ed. / Page. 373.) Repeat AIPG-06.
ENDODONTICS
80. Sterilization of Gutta percha points is done by:
A. Hot salt sterilizer
B. Autoclaving
C. Chemical solutions
D. Dry heat.
80. Answer is: C- Chemical solutions.
(Ref: Grossman-11th Ed/ Pg 140) Repeat AIPG-06.
81. Difference between physical characteristics of a file & reamer is:
A. The cross-section of reamers is square and files are triangular in cross section.
B. The numbers of flutes on the blade are more in files than in reamers.
C. The reamers have more flutes in the blade.
D. Files have two superficial grooves to produce flutes in a double helix design.
81. Answer is: B- The numbers of flutes on the blade are more in files than in reamers.
(Ref. Grossman 11th Ed/ 195) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
ORTHODONTICS
82. A dentist performed restorative procedure in an 11 year old child and found that the primary molars were in various stages of exfoliation with slight anterior crowding present. His next appointment should be:
A. After three months for observation
B. After six months for recall checkup
C. After one year
D. When all the permanent teeth will erupt
82. Answer is: A- After three months for observation
(Ref: National boards series-Q. no.16, March 1980 paper) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-07.
83. Rectangular wire used in edgewise appliance is primarily meant for:
A. Correction of crown root position
B. Increasing the strength of wire
C. Correction of Arch-length Deficiency
D. Used for correction of anterior crowding
83. Answer is: A- Correction of crown root position
(Ref. Proffit- 2nd Ed/Pg 343) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
84. A buccal coil spring is used to regain space between 1st premolar & 1st molar. The most common post treatment complication is:
A. Pain
B. Gingival irritation
C. Tendency for the 1st molar to intrude
D. Tendency for the 1st premolar to rotate
84. Answer is: D- Tendency for the 1st premolar to rotate
(Ref: National boards series-Q. no.26, March 1980 paper) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
85. Arch space for the eruption of 3rd molars is created by:
A. Apposition of alveolar process
B. Resorption of posterior border of Ramus
C. Resorption of anterior border of Ramus.
D. Apposition of lower body of mandible.
85. Answer is: C- Resorption of anterior border of Ramus.
(Ref. Bhalajhi 3rd Ed/ Pg 33) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
86. ANB angle of 2? indicates:
A. A favorable relationship of maxillary alveolar base to Mandibular alveolar base
B. A favorable relationship of mandible to cranium.
C. Poor cranial growth
D. Upright incisors
86. Answer is: A- A favorable relationship of maxillary alveolar base to mandibular alveolar base.
(Ref: Bhalajhi- 3rd Ed/ 154, National boards series-Q. no.23, March 1980 paper) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
87. When a maxillary removable orthodontic appliance is first placed, the effect on patient’s speech will be:
A. Difficulty with lingual vowels for a few days.
B. Difficulty with lingual vowel for several weeks.
C. Difficulty with linguoalveolar consonants for a few days.
D. Difficulty with linguoalveolar consonants for several weeks.
87. Answer is: C- Difficulty with linguoalveolar consonants for a few days.
(Ref: National boards series-Q. no.24, March 1980 paper) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
PEDODONTICS
88. Pulse oxymetry is used for the determination of:
A. Rate of blood flow.
B. Oxygen saturation.
C. Blood volume.
D. Blood coefficient.
88. Answer is: B- Oxygen saturation
(Ref. Shobha Tandon 1st Ed/ Pg 338) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
89. A non-invasive method to measure the blood flow is:
A. Electric pulp testing.
B. Percussion.
C. Laser Doppler flowmetry.
D. Radiographic visualization.
89. Answer is: C- Laser Doppler flowmetry
(Ref. Shobha Tandon, 1st Ed/ 332) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
90. First to advocate distal shoe in 1929:
A. Wilson.
B. William.
C. Willet.
D. Roche.
90. Answer is: C- Willet.
(Ref: AIIMS-MAY-06, Q-86)
ANATOMY
1. Which one of the following is a junction of frontal, parietal, temporal & greater wing of sphenoid bone?
A. Pterion
B. Lambda
C. Vertex
D. Inion.
1. Answer is: A- Pterion.
(Ref: B.D.Chaurasia- 3rd Vol- 3rd Ed/ pg 7). Repeat AIPG-06.
2. A non-synovial joint with dense connective tissue between two bony surfaces is termed as:
A. Synchondrosis
B. Syndesmosis
C. Symphysis
D. Suture.
2. Answer is: D- Suture.
(Ref: Gray’s Anatomy- 39th Ed/ pg 103).
PHYSIOLOGY
3. Lysis of fibrin is brought about by:
A. Plasmin
B. Hyaluronidase
C. Collagenase
D. Coagulase
3. Answer is: A- Plasmin.
(Ref. K.D. Tripathi-5th Ed/ Pg 569)
4. Normal hemoglobin in adults is designated as:
A. Hb H
B. Hb S
C. Hb A
D. Hb F
4. Answer is: C- Hb A.
(Ref: Ganong 18th Ed / 497)
5. Which one of the following is true after exercise?
A. Cerebral blood flow increases if there is an increase in systolic blood pressure.
B. Blood flow to muscle increases in 30 seconds.
C. Body temperature increases.
D. Lymphatic flow to the muscle decreases.
5. Answer is: C- Body temperature increases.
(Ref: Ganong 18th Ed / 588-90)
6. Which one of the following statements is true when a normal person lies down?
A. The heart rate settles above that of normal.
B. There is an immediate increase in the venous return.
C. Cerebral blood flow increases.
D. Blood flow to apex of the lung decreases.
6. Answer is: B- There is an immediate increase in the venous return.
(Ref: Ganong 18th / 587)
7. A complex factor mucopolysaccharide present in lung and liver that also prevents coagulation of blood is:
A. Heparin.
B. Plasmin
C. Acetylsalicylic acid.
D. Histamine.
7. Answer is: A- Heparin.
(Ref: K.D. Tripathi 5th / 561)
8. About Nitric oxide all of the following is true except:
A. It causes penile erection.
B. It acts via c-AMP.
C. It decreases the vasomotor tone.
D. It is present in cigarette smoke.
8. Answer is: B-It acts via cyclic-AMP.
(Ref: Harper 24th Ed / 699. KDT 5th Ed / 489)
BIOCHEMISTRY
9. Poly Unsaturated Fatty Acids are present in all of the following except:
A. Mustard oil
B. Corn oil
C. Ground nut oil.
D. Fish oil.
9. Answer is: A-Mustard Oil.
(Ref: Park 16th / Page 407)
10. Iron is present in all of the following except:
A. Myoglobin.
B. Catalase.
C. Cytochrome.
D. Pyruvate kinase.
10. Answer is: D- Pyruvate kinase
(Ref: Park -11th Ed /Pg 449) Repeat AIPG-06
11. Enzyme that regulates the conversion of ethanol to acetaldehyde is:
A. Alcohol dehydrogenase.
B. Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase.
C. Catalase.
D. Xanthene oxidase.
11. Answer is: A- Alcohol dehydrogenase.
(Ref. K.D.T. 5th / 351)
12. Which of the following enzyme at a pH of 8.6 has a function in bone mineralization and hydrolysis of phosphoric esters?
A. Acid phosphatase.
B. Alkaline phosphatase.
C. Collagenase.
D. Hyaluronidase.
12. Answer is: B- Alkaline phosphatase.
(Ref. Harper 24th Ed / Page 680)
13. Amino acid residue used in detection of strength of Collagen:
A. Proline
B. Hydroxyproline
C. Glycine
D. Hydroxyglycine.
13. Answer is: B- Hydroxyproline.
(Ref: Harper 24th / 669)
DENTAL MATERIALS
14. The angle between adhesive & adherent is zero degree. This indicates:
A. Rough surface between adhesive & adherent.
B. Presence of irregularities between the adherent surfaces.
C. Complete wetting of the surfaces.
D. Molecules of adhesive & adherent are at a tangent to each other.
14. Answer is: C- Complete wetting of surfaces
(Ref: Phillips-11th Ed/Pg 37, Phillips-10th Ed/Pg 28) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
15. Which of the following is true regarding lathe cut silver alloy?
A. Has low creep.
B. Requires least amount of mercury.
C. Has tensile strength, both at 15 mins & 7 days comparable to high copper Unicompositional alloys.
D. Achieves lowest compressive strength at 1 hour.
15. Answer is: D- Achieves lowest compressive strength at 1 hour.
(Ref: Craig, Restorative dental materials-11th Ed/Pg 295-97) Repeat AIPG-06.
16. Which of the following is true regarding corrosion of Amalgam restoration?
A. It can extend upto a depth of 100-500 microns.
B. Decreases if tin content of alloy decreases.
C. Is promoted by gamma phase of alloy particles.
D. Is resisted most by cooper-tin phase in high copper amalgam.
16. Answer is: A- It can extend upto a depth of 100-500 microns.
(Ref: Craig-10th Ed/Pg 222; Sturdevant 4th/ Pg 154) Repeat AIPG-06.
17. Over-trituration of silver & mercury causes:
A. Reduction in contraction.
B. Increases strength in lathe cut but reduces strength in spherical alloy.
C. Gives a dull & crumbly amalgam mix.
D. Decreases the creep.
17. Answer is: B- Increases the strength of lathe-cut alloy but reduces the strength of spherical alloy amalgam.
(Ref: Craig 10th/226, 227) Repeat AIPG-06
18. Poisson’s ratio is:
A. Lateral strain by axial strain within elastic limit.
B. Equal to flexural strength.
C. Is more in amalgam.
D. Is low for gold alloy.
18. Answer is: A- Lateral strain by axial strain within elastic limit.
(Ref. Craig 10th Ed / 66, Skinner 11th Ed / 85)
19. Strain is:
A. New length upon original length after a load is applied.
B. Original length upon new length after a load is applied.
C. Force applied to change the length.
D. Difference between the two lengths upon original length.
19. Answer is: D- Difference between the two lengths upon original length.
(Ref: Skinner 11th / 73 & 74; Craig 10th / 66)
MICROBIOLOGY
20. Most commonly used selective medium for Streptococcus mutans is:
A. MacConkey’s medium.
B. Mitis-Salivarius-Bacitracin agar.
C. Nutrient agar.
D. Tellurite medium
20. Answer is: B- Mitis salivarius bacitracin agar.
(Ref: Soben Peter 2nd / 375) Repeat AIPG-06
PATHOLOGY
21. All of the following is true about Cerebral edema except:
A. Can result in herniation of the brain from foramen magnum.
B. Results from increased lymphatic drainage.
C. Results in an increase in intracranial pressure.
D. Can result from an increase in plasma protein concentration.
21. Answer is: B- Results from increased lymphatic drainage.
(Ref: Kumar-Cotran-Robbin’s-7th Ed/ Pg 811)
22. Apoptosis is suggestive of:
A. Coagulative necrosis.
B. Liquefactive degeneration.
C. Neoangiogenesis.
D. Epithelial dysplasia.
22. Answer is: B- Liquefactive degeneration.
(Ref: Kumar-Cotran-Robbin’s-7th Ed/ Pg 811) Repeat AIPG-06.
PHARMACOLOGY
23. Long term use of Aspirin causes:
A. Decreased platelet adhesion.
B. Decrease in fibrinogen formation.
C. Hypoprothrombinemia.
D. None of the above.
23. Answer is: C- Hypoprothrombinemia.
(Ref: K.D.T. 5th / 172 &159)
24. Which of the following is true about Benzodiazepines?
A. In higher quantities, it is relatively safer than other hypnotics.
B. Alters the sleep pattern to a great extent.
C. Stimulates hepatic metabolic enzymes.
D. All have metabolically active substrates.
24. Answer is: A- In Higher quantities, it is relatively safer than other hypnotics.
(Ref: K.D.T. 5th / 361)
25. I.V. Diazepam in a patient on the dental chair can cause:
A. Tinel’s sign.
B. Verill’s sign.
C. Bell’s sign.
D. Corman’s sign
25. Answer is: B- Verill’s sign
(Ref. Neelima Malik 1st Ed. / 650) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06
26. Drug that can result in hyperglycemia is:
A. Beta blockers.
B. ACE inhibitors.
C. Glucocorticoids.
D. NSAIDs.
26. Answer is: C-Glucocorticoids.
(Ref: KDT 5th Ed / Pg 256)
DENTAL HISTOLOGY
27. Type of Collagen found in principle fibres is:
A. Type-I.
B. Type-II.
C. Type-III.
D. Type-IV.
27. Answer is: A. Type I
(Ref: Carranza -9th Ed/Pg 37)
GENERAL MEDICINE
28. All of the following lead to severe adverse effects except:
A. Death.
B. Diabetes.
C. Prolonged hospitalization.
D. Immobility.
28. Answer is: B- Diabetes.
(Ref: Still searching….)
29. One of the following can be used in the management of a hemophilic patient:
A. Ascorbic acid.
B. Tranexamic acid.
C. Ascorbic acid.
D. Palmitoic acid.
29. Answer is: B- Tranexamic acid
(Ref. Neelima Malik 1st Ed. / 681) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
P.S.M & COMMUNITY DENTISTRY
30. Regarding Case control, all of the following are true except:
A. Risk factors can be identified.
B. It can be used in the study of rare diseases.
C. It measures incidence.
D. It requires few subjects.
30. Answer is: C- It measures incidence
(Park- 18th / 68 table 13) Repeat AIPG-06.
31. Break point chlorination indicates:
A. Start of chlorination process.
B. End of chlorination process.
C. Point where free residual chlorine starts appearing.
D. Point after partial saturation of water with chlorine.
31. Answer is: C- Point where free residual chlorine starts appearing.
(Ref: Soben P- 2nd / 778) Repeat AIPG-06.
32. Square root of pq/n indicates:
A. Standard error of mean.
B. Standard error of difference in means.
C. Standard error of proportion.
D. Standard error of difference in proportions.
32. Answer is: C- Standard error of proportions.
(Ref: Park-18th /649) Repeat AIPG-06.
33. True regarding Randomized Controlled Trial:
A. Baseline characteristics of intervention and control groups should be similar.
B. Investigator’s bias is minimized by double blinding.
C. Help ensure that study subjects are a part of the general population.
D. Reduce selection bias in allocation of treatment.
33. Answer is: D- Reduce selection bias in allocation to treatment
(Ref: Park 18th / 76) Repeat AIPG-06.
34. All of the following is true regarding informed consent except:
A. Patient must be informed about alternative procedures & their benefits.
B. Risk factors involved in the procedure must be explained.
C. Benefits of treatment likely to result must be highlighted.
D. Concealment of procedures which are beneficial may be done knowingly.
34. Answer is: D- Concealment of procedures which are beneficial may be done knowingly.
(Ref: Soben Peter 3rd / 773)
35. Good clinical practice is not essential in:
A. Preclinical studies.
B. Phase-I studies.
C. Phase-II studies.
D. Phase-IV studies.
35. Answer is: A- Preclinical studies.
36. Number of teeth used in modified PHP index is:
A. 6
B. 12
C. 18
D. 24
36. Answer is: A- 6.
(Ref: Soben Peter 3rd / 135-36)
ORAL PATHOLOGY
37. Pemphigus vulgaris is characterised by:
A. Acanthosis.
B. Auspitz sign
C. Acantholysis.
D. Wickham’s striae.
37. Answer is: C- Acantholysis
(Ref: Shafer 5th /1128) Repeat AIPG-06.
38. One of the following is an oral precancerous lesion:
A. Oral hairy leukoplakia.
B. Hairy B-cell leukemia.
C. White sponge nevus.
D. Speckled leukoplakia.
38. Answer is: D- Speckled leukoplakia
(Ref: Burket- 10th / Pg 102) Repeat AIPG-06.
39. Important organism causing dentinal caries is:
A. Streptococcus mutans.
B. Streptococcus viridans.
C. Borrelia vincenti.
D. Actinomyces actinobacillus.
39. Answer is: A- Streptococcus mutans.
(Ref: Shafer 5th /575) Repeat AIPG-06.
40. In taurodontism affected teeth exhibit:
A. Elongated large pulp chambers, short roots
B. Elongated small pulp chambers, short roots.
C. Elongated large pulp chambers, large roots.
D. Elongated small pulp chambers, large roots.
40. Answer is: A- Elongated large pulp chambers and short roots.
(Ref: Shafer 5th / 60) Repeat AIPG-06.
41. Dens in dente is most commonly seen in:
A. Premolars
B. Lateral incisors.
C. Paramolars
D. Maxillary canines.
41. Answer is: B- Lateral incisors
(Ref: Shafer 5th / 57) Repeat AIPG-06.
42. A tumor of oral cavity represented as T3N2M0 is classified as:
A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III
D. Stage IV
42. Answer is: D- Stage IV
(Ref: Harrison-16th /505)
43. Blanching of the oral mucosa is associated with:
A. Scleroderma.
B. Riboflavin deficiency
C. Oral sub mucous fibrosis.
D. Thiamine deficiency.
43. Answer is: C- Oral submucous fibrosis.
(Ref. Shafer’s 5th Ed/ 136, 4th Ed/ 109)
44. Rigidity of the oral mucosa is seen with:
A. Oral sub mucous fibrosis.
B. Cicatricial pemphigoid.
C. Healed lesions of aphthous stomatitis.
D. None of the above.
44. Answer is: A- Oral submucous fibrosis.
(Ref: Above answer & Pathology of head and neck tumors- Leon Barnes.)
45. Bilateral spongy folded mucosa is seen in:
A. Candidiasis.
B. White sponge nevus.
C. Aspirin burns.
D. Leukoplakia.
45. Answer is: B- White sponge nevus
(Ref: Shafer/ 4th- 825)
46. White patch on the buccal mucosa which disappears on stretching is:
A. Leukoplakia.
B. White sponge nevus.
C. Scleroderma.
D. Leucoedema.
46. Answer is: D- Leucoedema.
(Ref: Burket/ 10th- 86)
47. Most common site of occurrence of lateral periodontal cyst is:
A. Between maxillary premolars.
B. Mandibular third molar area.
C. Maxillary tuberosity area.
D. Between mandibular cuspid & premolar.
47. Answer is: D- Between the mandibular cuspid and first premolar.
(Ref: Shafer 5th / 372) Repeat AIPG-06.
48. In leukemic patient bleeding does not stop because of:
A. Decreased platelet count.
B. Increased WBC count.
C. Increased calcium levels.
D. Decrease in coagulation factor levels.
48. Answer is: A- Decreased platelet count.
(Ref: Carranza -9th Ed/ Pg 216) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
49. Increased alkaline phosphatase levels are seen with:
A. Paget’s disease.
B. Hypophosphatasia.
C. Cherubism.
D. Hyperparathyroidism.
49. Answer is: A- Paget’s disease.
(Ref: Shafer/ 5th -1001)
50. In lead poisoning gingival discoloration presents as:
A. Blue-black line.
B. Yellow line.
C. Grayish black line.
D. Steel gray line.
50. Answer is: A- Blue black/ C- Grayish black line/ D- Steel gray
(Ref: Carranza 9th /223; Shafer 5th Ed/774; Burket 8th/ 302)
51. Dilaceration occurs due to:
A. Trauma to the tooth germ during root development.
B. Abnormal displacement of the tooth germ during root development.
C. Abnormal displacement of enamel epithelium during tooth development.
D. Abnormal displacement of ameloblasts during tooth development.
51. Answer is: A- Trauma to the tooth germ during root development.
(Ref: Shafer -5th Ed/ 56) Repeat AIPG-06
52. Which of the following is true about Xerostomia?
A. pH of saliva increases.
B. pH of saliva decreases.
C. pH of saliva increases in morning & decreases in evening.
D. pH of saliva remains unchanged.
52. Answer is: B- pH of saliva decreases. (Most probably)
(Ref: Shafer 4th/33-34, Burket-10th /222).
53. Diagnosis of Periapical Cemental Dysplasia is done by:
A. Vitality tests.
B. Radiographs.
C. Percussion.
D. Examination of the lamina dura.
53. Answer is: A- Vitality tests (Most probably)
(Ref: White and Pharoah -5th / 495)
54. Toluidene blue stain is used to distinguish between:
A. Pemphigus & lichen planus.
B. Leukoplakia & lichen planus.
C. Detection of malignant transformation.
D. Candidiasis & leukoplakia.
54. Answer is: C- Detection of malignant transformation.
(Ref: Burket- 10th / 106)
ORAL RADIOLOGY
55. Radiographically, driven snow appearance is seen with:
A. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumour
B. Calcifying odontogenic cyst
C. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumour
D. Keratocyst
55. Answer is: C- Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumour
(Ref: Shafers 5th / 392) Repeat AIPG-06.
56. Disadvantage of a grid is:
A. Increases exposure time.
B. Decreases clarity.
C. Causes blurring of image.
D. More skin dose.
56. Answer is: A- Increases exposure time.
(Ref: White and Pharoah -5th / 85) AIIMS-NOV-05
57. Consistent radiographs are maintained by:
A. Constant mA & kVp.
B. Automatic processing.
C. Using long cone technique
D. Fixed processing time.
57. Answer is: B- Automated processing. (My guess)
(Ref: White & Pharoah 5th / 103)
58. Contrast on a radiograph is:
A. Dark areas on a radiograph.
B. Range of densities on a radiograph.
C. Overall darkening of the radiograph.
D. Light areas on the radiographs.
58. Answer is: B- Range of densities on a radiograph.
(Ref: White & Pharoah -5th / 392)
59. True about parallax technique:
A. Increases image clarity
B. Decreases distortion of the image.
C. Gives relative image of object.
D. Decreases image clarity.
59. Answer is: D- Decreases image clarity.
(Ref: White & Pharoah- 5th / 83) AIIMS-NOV-05
ORAL SURGERY
60. Most common reason for the removal of impacted mandibular third molars is:
A. Referred pain.
B. Recurrent pericoronitis.
C. Chronic periodontal disease.
D. Orthodontic treatment.
60. Answer is: B- Recurrent Pericoronitis.
(Ref: Shafer- 5th/86) Repeat AIPG-06.
61. Which of the following is the correct reason for facial nerve injury during forcep extraction?
A. The mastoid process is absent at birth
B. The parotid glands is in developing stage
C. The beak of the forceps engages the main trunk of facial nerve
D. The sublingual hematoma during delivery causes neuropraxia.
61. Answer is: A- The mastoid process is absent at birth
(Ref: Dutta- Obs and Gynec.- 5th Ed/ 591) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
62. Incidence of osteoradionecrosis is increased in following cases:
A. Extraction following radiotherapy.
B. Leukaemic patients.
C. Patients on hyperbaric oxygen therapy.
D. Xerostomia
62. Answer is: A- Extraction following radiotherapy.
(Ref. Neelima Malik :1st Ed/616-621)
63. Syncope results from:
A. Cerebral edema
B. Cerebral hyperemia
C. Cerebral hypoxia
D. Cerebral degeneration
63. Answer is: C- Cerebral hypoxia
(Ref. Davidson’s- 18th Ed. / 225, Ref. Monheims- 7th Ed. / 238) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
PERIODONTOLOGY
64. A papilla preservation flap is indicated in:
A. Horizontal bone loss in upper anterior region.
B. Infrabony defects.
C. Crater type bony defect.
D. One walled defect.
64. Answer is: A- Horizontal bone loss in upper anterior region.
(Ref: Carranza 9th/ 723) Repeat AIPG-06.
65. A procedure done to eliminate periodontal pocket & increase the width of attached gingiva is termed as:
A. Laterally displaced flap.
B. Apically displaced flap.
C. Papilla preservation flap.
D. Modified Widman flap.
65. Answer is: B- Apically displaced flap.
(Ref: Above question & chart)
66. Role of barrier membrane in GTR is:
A. To help overall healing.
B. Prevention of epithelial migration.
C. Arrest of bleeding.
D. Prevent the infection from reaching the underlying tissues.
66. Answer is: B- Prevention of epithelial migration
(Ref: Carranza 9th/809) Repeat AIPG-06
67. Biofilm found on tooth surface is termed as:
A. Enamel.
B. Dental plaque.
C. Saliva.
D. Dentinal caries.
67. Answer is: B- Dental Plaque
(Ref: Carranza 9th/97) Repeat AIPG-06.
68. Periodontitis that does not resolve with treatment is termed as:
A. Aggressive periodontitis.
B. Chronic periodontitis.
C. Refractory periodontitis.
D. Juvenille periodontitis.
68. Answer is: C- Refractory periodontitis.
(Ref: Carranza 10th/ 243)
69. Peripheral buttressing bone formation effect is termed as:
A. Ledges.
B. Craters.
C. Hemiseptum.
D. Lipping.
69. Answer is: D- Lipping.
(Ref: Carranza 9th/ Pg 362,365-66)
PROSTHODONTICS
70. Modification in Kennedy’s classification is:
A. Number of spaces present anterior to the remaining teeth.
B. Number of spaces present after the basic classification.
C. Edentulous spaces posterior to all the teeth.
D. Additional spaces in class-IV.
70. Answer is: B- Number of spaces present after the basic classification.
(Ref. McCracken’s removable partial denture: 11th Ed/pg 22)
71. One of the following is true about a pier abutment:
A. Presence of edentulous space mesial to the abutment tooth.
B. Presence of edentulous space distal to the abutment tooth.
C. Presence of edentulous spaces on both sides of the abutment tooth.
D. A periodontally weak abutment.
71. Answer is: C- Presence of edentulous spaces on both sides of the abutment tooth.
(Ref. Nallaswamy 1st Ed/ pg 550)
72. The correct placement of an indirect retainer is:
A. Near the fulcrum line.
B. Away from the fulcrum line.
C. Near the direct retainer.
D. Near the edentulous area.
72. Answer is: B- Away from the fulcrum line.
(Ref. McCracken’s: 11th Ed/Pg 156)
73. Lingual bar is: (size & shape)
A. 6 gauge, pear shaped.
B. 4 gauge, pear shaped.
C. 6 gauge, half pear shaped.
D. 4 gauge, half pear shaped.
73. Answer is: C- 6 gauge, half pear shaped.
(Ref. McCracken’s: 11th Ed/Pg 39)
74. Correct indication for a lingual plate is:
A. When the lingual sulcus is deep.
B. When the ridge is not strong enough to support the teeth.
C. When more number of anterior teeth are involved.
D. Any of the above can be an indication.
74. Answer is: C- When more number of anterior teeth are involved.
(Ref. McCracken’s: 11th Ed/Pg 42, 61)
75. Disadvantage of a flexible major connector is:
A. Causes other components of the RPD to become more effective.
B. Causes overload & periodontal destruction of the abutment teeth.
C. Decreased retention.
D. -----------
75. Answer is: B- Causes overload & periodontal destruction of the abutment teeth.
(Ref. McCracken’s: 11th Ed/Pg 35-36)
OPERATIVE DENTISTRY
76. Permeability of dentin does not depend upon:
A. Smear layer.
B. Diffusion co-efficient of fluid.
C. Convection of fluid
D. Length of dentinal tubules.
76. Answer is: Still searching
77. Incipient or recurrent caries can be detected before they are visible on a radiograph by:
A. Visible light.
B. Ultrasonic light.
C. Fibre optic trans-illumination.
D. Digital Fibre optic trans-illumination.
77. Answer is: D- Digital Fibre optic trans-illumination.
(Ref. Damle 3rd Ed/ 51, Internet references) Repeat AIPG-06.
78. Resistance form is that shape of a cavity which:
A. Prevents displacement of restoration.
B. Permits restoration to withstand occlusal forces.
C. Prevents displacement of restoration & Permits restoration to withstand occlusal forces.
D. Allows for adequate instrumentation.
78. Answer is: B- Permits restoration to withstand occlusal forces.
(Ref. Sturdevant’s: 4th Ed/pg 290)
79. Pin used in pin retained restoration of an endodontically treated tooth is:
A. Cemented.
B. Friction locked.
C. Self threaded.
D. Any of the above.
79. Answer is: A- Cemented pin
(Ref: Sturdevant- 2nd Ed. / Page. 373.) Repeat AIPG-06.
ENDODONTICS
80. Sterilization of Gutta percha points is done by:
A. Hot salt sterilizer
B. Autoclaving
C. Chemical solutions
D. Dry heat.
80. Answer is: C- Chemical solutions.
(Ref: Grossman-11th Ed/ Pg 140) Repeat AIPG-06.
81. Difference between physical characteristics of a file & reamer is:
A. The cross-section of reamers is square and files are triangular in cross section.
B. The numbers of flutes on the blade are more in files than in reamers.
C. The reamers have more flutes in the blade.
D. Files have two superficial grooves to produce flutes in a double helix design.
81. Answer is: B- The numbers of flutes on the blade are more in files than in reamers.
(Ref. Grossman 11th Ed/ 195) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
ORTHODONTICS
82. A dentist performed restorative procedure in an 11 year old child and found that the primary molars were in various stages of exfoliation with slight anterior crowding present. His next appointment should be:
A. After three months for observation
B. After six months for recall checkup
C. After one year
D. When all the permanent teeth will erupt
82. Answer is: A- After three months for observation
(Ref: National boards series-Q. no.16, March 1980 paper) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-07.
83. Rectangular wire used in edgewise appliance is primarily meant for:
A. Correction of crown root position
B. Increasing the strength of wire
C. Correction of Arch-length Deficiency
D. Used for correction of anterior crowding
83. Answer is: A- Correction of crown root position
(Ref. Proffit- 2nd Ed/Pg 343) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
84. A buccal coil spring is used to regain space between 1st premolar & 1st molar. The most common post treatment complication is:
A. Pain
B. Gingival irritation
C. Tendency for the 1st molar to intrude
D. Tendency for the 1st premolar to rotate
84. Answer is: D- Tendency for the 1st premolar to rotate
(Ref: National boards series-Q. no.26, March 1980 paper) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
85. Arch space for the eruption of 3rd molars is created by:
A. Apposition of alveolar process
B. Resorption of posterior border of Ramus
C. Resorption of anterior border of Ramus.
D. Apposition of lower body of mandible.
85. Answer is: C- Resorption of anterior border of Ramus.
(Ref. Bhalajhi 3rd Ed/ Pg 33) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
86. ANB angle of 2? indicates:
A. A favorable relationship of maxillary alveolar base to Mandibular alveolar base
B. A favorable relationship of mandible to cranium.
C. Poor cranial growth
D. Upright incisors
86. Answer is: A- A favorable relationship of maxillary alveolar base to mandibular alveolar base.
(Ref: Bhalajhi- 3rd Ed/ 154, National boards series-Q. no.23, March 1980 paper) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
87. When a maxillary removable orthodontic appliance is first placed, the effect on patient’s speech will be:
A. Difficulty with lingual vowels for a few days.
B. Difficulty with lingual vowel for several weeks.
C. Difficulty with linguoalveolar consonants for a few days.
D. Difficulty with linguoalveolar consonants for several weeks.
87. Answer is: C- Difficulty with linguoalveolar consonants for a few days.
(Ref: National boards series-Q. no.24, March 1980 paper) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
PEDODONTICS
88. Pulse oxymetry is used for the determination of:
A. Rate of blood flow.
B. Oxygen saturation.
C. Blood volume.
D. Blood coefficient.
88. Answer is: B- Oxygen saturation
(Ref. Shobha Tandon 1st Ed/ Pg 338) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
89. A non-invasive method to measure the blood flow is:
A. Electric pulp testing.
B. Percussion.
C. Laser Doppler flowmetry.
D. Radiographic visualization.
89. Answer is: C- Laser Doppler flowmetry
(Ref. Shobha Tandon, 1st Ed/ 332) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
90. First to advocate distal shoe in 1929:
A. Wilson.
B. William.
C. Willet.
D. Roche.
90. Answer is: C- Willet.
(Ref: AIIMS-MAY-06, Q-86)
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