AIPGE 2011 Dental

6.Heterozygous sickle cell anemia esistant towards:
Malaria

7.Scrub typhus all except:
Transmitted when adult mite feeds..

8.0.75 negative predictive value means??

9.Cooleys anemia:
beta thalassemia major

10.Craniosynostosis,preaxial polysyndactyly...
Carpenters syndrome

11. normal CD4 cell count should be above:
1000/cu.mm

12.Not a cause of vascular headache:
Anesthesia dolorosa

AIPGE 2011 Dental

when bile pool is low recycling becomes
1. faster
2. slower
3.unchanged
4. bears no relation

qs about mech of corticosteroids,
cerebellar lesions
migraine prophylaxis
iv anesthetic causing bronchodialation,
tocolytic agents,
normal cd4 counts
oxycephaly
donovanosis
prpofol
headache of vascular origin
3rd molar extaction
down syndromne
acute leukemia predispong factors
cooleys anemia
maternal mortalityrate
ant ethmoidal nerve
fatal ds- multiple myeloma etc
juvenile perio bacteria
ace inhibitors
incidence > prev
turnrs hypo

1.Non-respi function of lungs:
sodium balance

2.Function of bronchiaL circulation:
gaseous exchange

3.Sphingomyelinase deficiency, mental retardation etc:
Nieman picks disease

4.Rural and urban difference(PSM ques):
TB

5.Resurgence of malaria all except:
Resistane in host

AIPGE 2011 Dental

Few other questions
1.not an occupational disease
a.lung ca
b.skin ca
c.liver ca
d.leukemia

2.all are STD except
a.herpes
b.scabies
c.candida
d.mycobacterium leprae

3.minimum score of GCS
a.1
b.3@@
c.7
d.

4.all are used in pitutary adenoma except
a.orlistat
b.
c.
d.letrozol

5.both CMI and HUMORAL IMMUNITY are best elicted by?
a.polysacchride Ag
b.protein Ag
c.
d.lipid Ag

6.which of these drugs interacts with warfarin but doesnt increase INR
a. OCP
b.metoclopramide
c.
d.erythromycin

7.best time for interferon therapy
a. when virus enters cell
b.DNA/RNA replication
c.protein replication
d.uncoating of virus

8. common occupational disease
a.lung ca
b.skin ca @@@@
c.liver ca
d.leukemia

9. all cause secondary polycythemia except
a.high altitude
b.hemangioblastoma
c.myeloproliferative disorder
pheochromocytoma

10. decrased metbolic rate is seen in
a.obesity @@@@
b.hyperthyrodism
c.feeding
d.exercise

11. which of the following tests is not used for detection for specic aneuploidy?
a.FISH
b.RT-PCR
c.lQF-PCR
d.microarray@@@@@@@2

12. all cause secondary polycythemia except
a.high altitude
b.hemangioblastoma
c.myeloproliferative disorder @@@@???????
pheochromocytoma

13. not carrying parasympathetic fibres?
a.trochlear @@@@@@@2
b.facial
c.occulomotor
d, glossopharyngeal

14. sensory supply of soft palate
facial
vagus
glossopharyngeal
maxillary

15. all of true relation to scrub typhus except?
a.mites act as reservior
b.tetra is the drug of choice
c.transmitted when aduld mites feed on hosts @@@@@@
d,

16. fulmiative hepatitis in pregnant woman by
a.hep C
b.HEP B
c.HEP D
d, HEP E

Q17. india aims to eliminate which of the following diseases by 2015?
a.malaria
b.filariasis @@@@
c.kala azar
d,TB

18. interdental col is prone to inflammation bcz
epithelium is non keratinized
plaque accumulates
is difficult to clean
all of d above

19. sulcular membrane acts as semipermeable membrane through which

bacterial products pass thru saliva
fluid from gingiva seeps into saliva
both
none

20. attached gingiva is

always stippled
non keratinized
resistant to masticatory forces
resistant to inflammatory changes

21. m/c cause of dry mouth in adults
tranquillizers
anti histaminics
insulin
birth control pills

22. m/c clinical sign of trauma occlusal trauma
wear facet
tooth mobility
enamel fracture
cusp fracture

23. probable etiology of gingivitis
high progesterone
deficiency of estrogen n testosterone
preganancy
aldosterone

24. supragingival plaque undergoes which of d foll changes wid time
plaque microflora bcms more g-ve
plaque microflora bcms more g+ve

25. difference betwn color of supragingival n sub gingival calculus
ph
death of wbc
haemolysis of rbc
all of d above

26. in multiple myeloma [ bence jones ] which 1 of the following is seen?
a.alpha heavy chain disease
b.gamma heavy chain disease
c.mu heavy chain disease@@@@@@
d,epsilon heavy chain disease

27. mass chemoprophylaxis is endemic area recommended for all the following except??
a.yaws
b.filariasis
c.leprosy@@@@@@@@@@@
d,trachoma

28. The following are true about tetanus acquired through traumatic wound:
a. Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn cells in the spinal cord
b. the tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin acts on the post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse transmission.
c. the patient should be given antitoxin intravenously
d. the presence of Clostridium tetani in the wound can be identified by a positive Nagler reaction

AIPGE 2011 Dental

Q26. Radiograph alone can diagnose:

1. Periodontal pocket
2. Periodontal abscess
3. Anatomic root length
4. Bifurcation involvement

Q27. When pins are used in amalgam, strength of amalgam:

1. Deceases
2. Increases
3. Remains same
4. May increase or decrease

Q28. Most common cause of TMJ ankylosis is:

1. Trauma
2. Development disturbances
3. Infection
4. Atrophy

Q29. parenteral nutrion which is not given
fibre
micronutrient
carbohydrate
fat

Q30. a young boy had a radio opaque area found at the apex of a permant tooth wid deep caries !!!

condensing osteitis
apical periodontitis
chronic periodontitis
???????????????

Q31. 'indifferent' fibers are

a. elastic fibers@@@@@@@@@@@
b. oxytalan fibers
c. collagen fibers
d. None of the above

D ans for dis s COLLAGEN FIBERS ONLY

ref - carranza 9th ed pg no. 38, its also given in glickmann's clinical periodontology..............

Both d book states- In addition to these fibers types i.e. principal collagen, oxytalan n eluanin, SMALL COLLAGEN FIBERS ASSOCIATED WITH THE LARGE PRINCIPAL COLLAGEN FIBERS HAVE BEEN DESCRIBED. THESE FIBERS RUN IN ALL DIRECTIONS FROM A PLEXUS CALLED THE '' INDIFFERENT FIBER PLEXUS''.

Q32. in gingivitis, the role of immunoglobulins is consistent with increased number of

fibroblases
neutrophils
lymphocytes
plasma cells

Q33. Gingival clefts may be formed by
occlusal disharmonies
faulty tooth brushing
normal frenum attachment
use of dental floss

Q34. In short which of the following is not and effect of increased prolactin level,..

a. Visual field defects
b. Gonadal dysfunction
c. Headache
d. Exccessive lactation

Q35. Mother donated one kidney to her daughter, what type of graft is it?

Allo.......
Xeno
Auto
Iso

Q36. high viscocity saliva related to increase caries in children

a. really true
b. partially true
c. partially false
d. really false

Q37. 'not sensory to palate?

a. facial n
b , glossopharyngeal n
c. asending pharyngeal n
d. vagus

Q38. dengue hemorrhagic fever caused by
1 bacteria
2 fungi
3 virus
4 bacteria superadded on virus

Q39. involuntary movement of eye ball by

a. visual cortex
b. cerebellum
c.?
d. ?

Q40. 'ant ethmoidal n suplies all except?

a. ethmoidal air cells
b. maxillary sinus
c, dural sheath of ant cranial fossa
d. interior of nasal cavity

Q41. 'nitrates are not used in

a. CCF
b. esophageal spasm
c. renal colic
d. cyanide poisoning

Q42. whch 1 not converted to an active metabolite?

a. quinapril
b. fosinapril
c. benzopril
d. lisnopril

AIPGE 2011 Dental

AIPG 2011 Dental Questions Recall

1. 'indifferent' fibers are

a. elastic fibers
b. oxytalan fibers
c. collagen fibers
d. None of the above

2. Apical migration of epithelial attachment with corresponding recession of marginal gingiva results in

a.Shallow sulcus
b. gingival pocket formation
c. infrabony pocket formation
d. periodontal pocket formation

3. Gingival clefts may be formed by
a. occlusal disharmonies
b. faulty tooth brushing
c. normal frenum attachment
d. use of dental floss

4. Tobacco chewing is thought to be contributing / predisposing factor in which condition ?

a. desquamative gingivitis
b. ANUG
c.juvenile periodontitis
d. erythema multiforme

5. ADH from

a. pre optic
b. supra optic
c. para venticular
d. post optic

6. blood coagualation defect not seen?

a. after taking brufen
b. thalasamia
c. VWF defiecien
d.

7. attached gingiva is

a. always stippled
b. non keratinized
c. resistant to masticatory stress and forces
d. resistant to inflammatory changes

8. Type of bone present in interradicular area
cortical
cancellous
osteophytic
exophyric

9. type of bone present on labial surface of anterior teeth
cortical
cancellous
exophytic
osteophytic

10. most common cause of drymouth in adults
tarnquilizers
anti-histaminics
insulin
birth control pills

11. most common clinical sign of occlusal trauma
wear facets
tooth mobility
enamel cracks
cuspal fracture

12. probable etiology of gingivosis is

high progesterone levels
def of estrogen and testosterone
pregnancy
aldosterone deficiency

13. supragingival plaque undergoes which of the following changes with time.

plaque mass decreases
plaque microflora becomes more gram positive
plaque microflora becomes more gram negative
plaque microflora becomes predominantly spirochetal

14. difference between sub and supragingival calculus is related to
pH of saliva
death of leukocytes
hemolysis of erythrocytes
all of the above

15. which of the following is a characteristic of supragingival plaque and not of sub gingival plaque in humans

motile bacteria are predominant
spirochetes are evident microscopically
gram negative bacteria are predominant
bacterial composition is altered by dietary sugar consumption

16. delayed hypersensitivity or cell mediated immune reactions occur in patients with periodontal diseases because they often have

-IgG antibody reactine with plaque bacterial antigens
-T lymphocytes sensitized to plaque bacterial antigens
-soluble immune complexes within involves gingival tissues
-all of the above

17. which of the following is most useful in diffentiating an acute periodontal abscess from pa abscess

-type of exhudate-
-nature of swelling
-intensity of pain
-result of periodontal probing

18. which index would u use to access the severity of periodontitis in epidemiological studiesof a large population.
-pma index
-gingival index
-periodontal index
-sulcus bleeding index

19. which of the following plaque indices does not use disclosing agent

-plaque component of periodontal disease index
-debris component of Simplified Oral Hygiene Index
-modified Quingley Hein plaque index
-all of the above

20. following plaque index divides each tooth surface into 9 areas

-php index
-plaue index by silness and loe
- modified Navy plaque index
- glass criteria for scoring debris

21. in gingivitis, the role of immunoglobulins is consistent with increased number of

-fibroblases
-neutrophils
-lymphocytes
-plasma cells

22. teeth that are least affected by periodontal disease are

-lower first molars and upper anteriors
-lower premolars and upper canines
-lower first molars and upper incisors and premolars
-lower centrals, laterals and upper molars
Q23. dengue hemorrhagic fever caused by
1 bacteria
2 fungi
3 virus
4 bacteria superadded on virus

Q24. Coeliac plexus is located:

1. Anterolateral & around the aorta
2. Posterolateral & around the aorta
3. Anteromedial to lumbar sympathetic chain
4. Posterolateral to lumbar sympathetic chain


Q25. hypercapnia causes
low blood pH
high blood ph
no change
none

AIPGE 2005 Dental 20

191. Hodgkin’s disease is diagnosed by finding which cells in the biopsy from lymph glands -

1. Recquet cell.
2. Tzanck cell.
3. Reed Sternberg cell.
4. Lacunar cell.

192. The best laboratory test to use in the diagnosis of Lupus vulgaris in the oral cavity is -

1. Bacterial smear.
2. Blood studies.
3. Biopsy.
4. Blood chemistry.

193. The most common benign tumor occurring in oral cavity is -

1. Papilloma.
2. Fibroma.
3. Adenoma.
4. Epulis.

194. Name the lesion, which is not a radiolucent lesion of the jaws -

1. Ameloblastoma.
2. Cherubism.
3. Focal periapical osteopetrosis.
4. Odontogenic.

195. Name the lesion where cotton wool, multifocal radiodense conglomerates is not seen usually -

1. Gardner’s Syndrome.
2. Cemento-osseous dysplasia.
3. Paget’s disease.
4. Fibrous dysplasia.

196. What is non-characteristic of Eagle’s syndrome?

1. Excessive larimation.
2. Pain during Mandibular movement.
3. Stabbing type pain originates in the tonsillar region.
4. When the jaws are closed the pain subsided.

197. The posterior tooth that gives a better support
is -

1. With convergent roots.
2. Divergent roots.
3. Conical roots.
4. Curved roots.

198. According to the Freudian psychosexual stages of development the stage that corresponds with development of mixed dentition and character formation is –
1. Concrete operational
2. Latency
3. Phallic
4. Genital

199. The range of wavelength of visible light curing system is:
1. 400-700 nm
2. 410-500 nm
3. 365-400 nm
4. 700-900 nm

200. The commonest teeth involved in transposition are:
1. Maxillary central incisor and lateral incisor
2. Maxillary canine and first premolar
3. Maxillary first premolar and second premolar
4. Maxillary canine and lateral incisor

AIPGE 2005 Dental 19

181. Which position is the most important in diagnosis of anterior or posterior crossbite?

1. Habitual position.
2. Lateral shift.
3. Maximum intercuspation.
4. The point of first contact at centric relation.

182. Which of the following forces best accomplish orthodontic tooth movement?

1. Heavy and continuous.
2. Heavy and intermittent.
3. Light and continuous.
4. Light and intermittent.

183. Which of the following is the least stable orthodontic correction?

1. Maxillary expansion.
2. Rotations.
3. Overbite.
4. Overjet.

184. Hyperplasia with regard to tissue growth refers to -

1. An increase in the number of cells.
2. An increase in the size of the cells.
3. Cellular maturation.
4. Cellular differentiation from stem cells.

185. The midpalatal suture is most likely to open at which following ages of expansion?

1. 18 years old.
2. 13 years old.
3. 25 years old.
4. 55 years old.

186. Functional appliances -

1. Only move teeth.
2. Can change the direction of growth.
3. Are fabricated in the original Mandibular position.
4. Correct malocclusion rapidly.

187. According to Wolff’s law -

1. Human teeth drift mesially as interproximal wear occurs.
2. Pressure causes bone resorption.
3. The optimal level of force for moving teeth is 10 to 200 grams.
4. Bone trabeculae line up in response to mechanical stresses.

188. Which of the following teeth is most likely to be congenitally missing?

1. Maxillary central incisor.
2. Mandibular canine.
3. Mandibular second premolar.
4. Maxillary first premolar.

189. The term refers to a type of fusion in which the formed teeth are joined only along the line of cementum -

1. Gemination.
2. Fusion.
3. Concrescence.
4. Dilaceration.

190. Which is a degeneration disorder characterized by atrophic changes of the deeper structures (e.g. fat, muscle, cartilage and bone) involving one side of the face?

1. Scleroderma
2. Parry Romberg Syndrome.
3. Miescher’s Syndrome.
4. Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome.

AIPGE 2005 Dental 18

171. The permanent anterior tooth that most often shows variation in size is the -

1. Mandibular canine.
2. Mandibular central incisor.
3. Maxillary canine.
4. Maxillary lateral incisor.

172. Relative to primary mandibular incisors, permanent mandibular incisors erupt -

1. Lingually.
2. Facially.
3. Distally.
4. Mesially.

173. In cephalometrics, the Frankfort plane is constructed -

1. Horizontally from nasion through portion.
2. Horizontally from nasion to the superior aspect of external auditory meatus.
3. Vertically from orbitale through the maxillary canine.
4. Horizontally from orbitale to the superior aspect of the external auditory meatus.

174. The last primary tooth to be replaced by a permanent tooth is usually -

1. Maxillary canine.
2. Mandibular canine.
3. Maxillary first molar.
4. Mandibular second molar.
175. Which is the predominant factor in the formation of the alveolar process?

1. Eruption of teeth.
2. Normal process of growth.
3. Lengthening of the condyle.
4. Overall growth of the bodies of the maxilla and the mandible.

176. Resistance units of equal size pulling against each is an example of which form of
anchorage -

1. Cortical anchorage.
2. Reciprocal anchorage.
3. Reinforced anchorage.
4. Stationary anchorage.

177. A single force applied at which point of a tooth will allow complete translation of the tooth -

1. At the apex.
2. At the incisal edge.
3. At the center of resistance.
4. At the center of rotation.

178. Which of the fibers attached to cementum are most likely to contribute to replace of tooth rotation -

1. Apical fibers.
2. Gingival group of fibers.
3. Horizontal fibers.
4. Oblique fibers.

179. What is the average amount of Leeway space available in the upper arch?

1. 0.9 mm.
2. 1.8 mm.
3. 3.5 mm.
4. 5.0 mm.

180. As age advances, the human profile generally -

1. Remain the same.
2. Increase in convexity.
3. Decreases in convexity.
4. Decreases in concavity.

AIPGE 2005 Dental 17

161. Hypercementosis of the entire dentition is a feature of -

1. Alber Schonberg disease.
2. Paget’s disease.
3. Lathyrism.
4. Low-grade periapical inflammation.

162. Desmodont is another name for -

1. The tooth with one wall pocket.
2. Tooth with three-wall pocket.
3. Periodontal ligament.
4. Dehiscence.

163. The oxygen consumption of normal gingiva is -

1. 1.6  0.37.
2. 0.9  0.22
3. 2.7  0.41.
4. 1.9  0.21.

164. Glucose levels in gingival crevicular fluid (GCF) are -

1. Equal to glucose level in serum.
2. Zero.
3. 3 – 4 times greater than serum levels.
4. More than 10 times the serum levels.

165. A black line on the gingiva, which follows the contour of the margin, is due to -

1. Lead.
2. Argyria.
3. Iron.
4. Mercury.

166. Gracey Curette No. 11-12 are used for -

1. Anterior teeth.
2. Posterior teeth mesial.
3. Posterior teeth distal.
4. Posterior teeth facial and lingual.

167. The brushing technique recommended for patients with periodontal disease is -

1. Scrub technique.
2. Sulcular technique.
3. Roll technique.
4. Circular technique.

168. Embrasure characterized by a slight to moderate recession of interdental papilla are -

1. Type I.
2. Type II.
3. Type III.
4. Type IV.

169. Malocclusion characterized by retroclined central and proclined lateral incisor is -

1. Class II Division I.
2. Class II Division II.
3. Class III.
4. Class I.

170. Six keys to normal occlusion were given by -

1. Andrews.
2. Angie.
3. Tweed.
4. Steiner.

AIPGE 2005 Dental 16

151. Which of the following statement is true with reference to the Glasgow Coma Scale?

1. In the first 24 hrs following a head injury an overall score of 11 indicates a good prognosis.
2. An overall score of less than 9 indicates a poor prognosis.
3. Gives an accurate impression of the neurological status.
4. Cannot be assessed in an unconscious patient.

152. Mucoperiosteal flaps -

1. When raised do not cause postoperative swelling and pain.
2. Are raised whenever bone removal is desired to facilitate extraction.
3. Are routinely raised during extraction.
4. When raised will cause trauma and injury to underlying osseous tissues.

153. A dermatome is used -

1. To remove scar tissue.
2. To harvest skin grafts.
3. To abrade skin which is pigmented.
4. For painting of lacerated soft tissue.

154. In Treacher Collin’s Syndrome their is -

1. Upward sloping of the palpebral fissure.
2. Poorly developed or absent malar bones.
3. Progenia and Mandibular prognathism.
4. No less of hearing.

155. Pierre Robin Syndrome is associated with -

1. Micrognathia.
2. Cleft of the lip and palate.
3. Tetrology of Fallot.
4. Syndactally.

156. Vitamin A -

1. Is water soluble.
2. Deficiency causes impaired vision.
3. Maintains normal plasma calcium levels.
4. Is required for formation of clotting factors.

157. Which of the following is used to show the base of the skull, sphenoid sinus, position and orientation of the condyles and fractures of the zygomatic arch ?

1. The TMJ Surgery.
2. Submentovertex Projection.
3. Reverse-Towne Projection.
4. The Facial Profile Survey.



158. Which survey has the purpose of examining fractures of the condylar neck of the
mandible?

1. Lateral Jaw Projection.
2. Lateral Skull Projection.
3. Waters Projection.
4. Reverse-Townes View.

159. In patients infected with HIV will have -

1. Elevated blastogenesis.
2. Depressed serum globulin levels.
3. High T4-T8 ratio.
4. Thrombocytopenia.

160. Conditional gingival enlargements is usually
not -

1. Hormonal.
2. Leukemic.
3. Granuloma pyogenium.
4. Drug induced.

AIPGE 2005 Dental 15

141. Which of the following dentitions shows the highest frequency of occurrence of supernumerary teeth?

1. Maxillary deciduous dentition.
2. Maxillary permanent dentition.
3. Mandibular deciduous dentition.
4. Mandibular permanent dentition.

142. What is the thickness of the layer of prismless enamel found in primary teeth?

1. 25 m.
2. 50 m.
3. 75 m.
4. 100 m.

143. When is the first evidence of calcification of primary teeth?

1. 4 months in-utero.
2. 4 and ½ months in-utero.
3. 5 months in-utero.
4. 6 months in-utero.

144. By what age does the startle and grasp reflex disappear?

1. 1 year.
2. 1 ½ year.
3. 2 years.
4. 3 years.

145. Who proposed the operant conditioning theory of child psychology?

1. Pavlov.
2. Skinner.
3. Jean Piaget.
4. Sigmond Freud.

146. The longest acting local anesthetic is -

1. Prilocaine.
2. Lignocaine.
3. Bupivacaine.
4. Ropivacaine.

147. The first drug of choice to be administered for anaphylaxis is -

1. Hydrocortisone.
2. Adrenaline.
3. Atropine.
4. Chlorpheneramine maliate.

148. In Gillies temporal approach for reduction of Zygomatic arch fracture Rowes Zygomatic Elevator is placed between -

1. Superficial fascia and the temporal fascia.
2. Between the temporal bone and the temporalis muscle.
3. Between the temporal fascia and the temporalis muscle.
4. Skin and superficial fascia.

149. The most lethal of complications due to blood transfusion is -

1. Jaundice.
2. Antigen antibody reaction.
3. Hepatitis B transmission.
4. HIV transmission.

150. In Cardio pulmonary resuscitation chest compressions is done -

1. On the upper part of sternum.
2. On the Xiphisterum.
3. On the middle of the lower part of the sternum.
4. On the left side of the chest.

AIPGE 2005 Dental 14

131. 1 PPM fluoride implies -

1. 1 mg of fluoride in 1 liter of water.
2. 1 gm of fluoride in 1 liter of water.
3. 0.1 gm of fluoride in 1 liter of water.
4. 1 gm of fluoride in 100 ml of water.

132. Caries activity test that gives a quantitative determination of the acidogenic microorganism in the oral cavity -

1. Fosdick test.
2. Synder test.
3. Abans test.
4. Blawary Reductase test.

133. Class II cavity preparation for amalgam restoration in deciduous teeth requires -

1. More buccolingual extension.
2. More mesiodistal extension.
3. More gingival.
4. More cervical.

134. Amalgam achieves 70% of the strength by -

1. 2 hours.
2. 4 hours.
3. 8 hours.
4. 16 hours.

135. Hand over mouth technique was first described by -

1. Dr. Evangeline Jordan.
2. Addelson and Gold fried.
3. Dr. G. V. Black.
4. Dr. Goldman.

136. Nirous Oxide is a colourless, sweet smelling gas with a density of -

1. 1.5.
2. 0.5.
3. 2.5.
4. 3.5.

137. Oral screen -

1. Causes the child to breathe through the nose.
2. Allows for the passage of air through mouth.
3. Prevents passage of air through nares.
4. Allows the passage of air through mouth and nose.

138. Ormocers are -

1. Organically modified composites.
2. Inorganically modified composites.
3. Organically modified Glass Inomer Cement.
4. Inorganically modified Glass Inomer Cement.

139. Nanotillers are in the range of –

1. 10 – 100 microns.
2. 0.1 – 1 microns.
3. 0.01 – 0.1 microns.
4. 0.005 – 0.01 microns.

140. Speech retardation may be considered if the child does not talk by -

1. 12 months.
2. 18 months.
3. 24 months.
4. 36 months.

AIPGE 2005 Dental 13

121. The average diameter of coronal dentinal tubules near the pulp is -

1. 0.2 – 0.5 microns.
2. 2 – 3 microns.
3. 0.2 – 0.3 microns.
4. 4 – 7 microns.

122. Ecologic determinants of plaque depend on all, except -

1. Sugar content of diet.
2. Host resistance.
3. Age and sex of the patient.
4. Status of dentition.

123. Salivary pellicle is composed of the following, except -

1. Immunoglobulin G.
2. Immunoglobulin A.
3. Amylase.
4. Albumin.

124. Caries detection dye can stain the following, except -

1. Granular nacrotic tissue.
2. Dry, leathery dentin.
3. Reversibly denatured collage.
4. Irreversibly denatured collage.

125. Torsional force is -

1. Compression.
2. Tensile force.
3. Shear.
4. Transverse bending force.

126. All of the following are true for traditional solution, except -

1. It is not necessary in moderately deep cavities under glass ionomer restoration.
2. Have film thickness of 1 – 50 microns.
3. Do not provide thermal or electric insulation.
4. Protect the pulp from reaction products leaching out of restoration.

127. One of the following is not true about treatment of dentinal hypersensitivity with dentin bonding agents -

1. It denatures protein.
2. It forms a hybrid layer.
3. It does not alter dentin permeability.
4. It forms resin tags into dentinal tubule.

128. Which of the following is not true about hand instruments used in operative dentistry?

1. They are generally made of stainless steel.
2. Nickel-Cobalt-chromium is never used in its fabrication.
3. Carbon steel is more efficient than stainless steel.
4. It can be made with stainless steel with carbide inserts.

129. Which one of the following does not commonly survive in a periapical lesion?

1. Pseudomonas.
2. Streptococcus.
3. Porphyromonas.
4. Actinomyces.

130. In endodontic surgery, which of the following about chromic gut suture is not true -

1. It properties are inferior to plain gut suture.
2. It is coated with chromium tri-oxide.
3. It is less biocompatible than plain gut suture.
4. Its absorption is faster than the plain gut sutures.

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111. In case, if maxillary canine is missing and we have to make a tooth supported FPD, abutments will be -

1. Central incisor, lateral incisor and 1st pre-molar.
2. Lateral incisor, 1st premolar and 2nd premolar.
3. Lateral incisor and 1st premolar.
4. It depends upon periodontal status of remaining teeth.

112. Pivoting movement better resisted by a tooth preparation if -

1. Diameter is smaller.
2. Diameter is large.
3. Diameter is large and length is small.
4. Do not depend on diameter of tooth.

113. Denture stability refers to resistance of a
denture -

1. To move in a vertical direction away from basal seat.
2. To move in a vertical dimension towards basal seat.
3. To movements on its tissue foundation especially to lateral forces.
4. Against any kind of movement more the 25 m in any direction.

114. Most recent type of denture adhesive is -

1. Salts of Gontrez.
2. Natural gums.
3. Cellulose based salts.
4. Acrylic adhesives.

115. Ideal site for implant placement in a completely edentulous mandible -

1. 1st molar region bilaterally.
2. Retromolar pad area because it is resistant to resorption.
3. Buccal shelf area because it is most ideally suited for loading.
4. Interforaminal region.

116. Beyron point is located at -

1. 13 mm anterior to posterior margin of tragus on a line from center of tragus to outer canthus.
2. 11 mm anterior to posterior margin of tragus on a line from parallel to and 7 mm below FHP.
3. 10 mm anterior to posterior margin of targus on a line from center of tragus to outer canthus.
4. 13 mm anterior to tragus on a line from base of tragus to outer canthus.

117. Pontic design not indicated in anterior region -

1. Ovate pontic.
2. Modified ridge lap pontic.
3. Stein pontic.
4. Spheroidal pontic.

118. Cavity preparation on which location of tooth will give rise to black class I cavity. (Spot the location of caries to make black class I cavity preparation) -

1. 1.
2. 2.
3. 3.
4. 4.
119. Find out the correct contoured buccal surface for food deflection -

1. 1.
2. 2.
3. 3.
4. 4.

120. Which of the following is not true about lubricant for rubber dam placement?

1. Should have water-miscible vehicle.
2. Vaseline is an ideal choice.
3. Should be easy to remove.
4. Should not interfere with bonding procedures.

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101. Shunting effect occurs in complete dentures -

1. If Occlusal plane is lower in molar area.
2. If Occlusal plane is lower in incisor area.
3. If the Occlusal plane is lower in molar as well as incisor area.
4. When patient has poor muscular co-ordination.

102. Training groove is placed in the lower denture -

1. To train the patients tongue position.
2. In cases of mandibulectomy.
3. To train the orbicularis oris muscle.
4. To train tognetic patients.

103. Which one of the following agent is used as a die hardner?

1. Cynoacrylate.
2. Nail polish.
3. Volalite relief agents.
4. Composite Resin.


104. A gnatho dynameter is used to record -

1. Biting force.
2. Centric relation.
3. Vertical dimensions.
4. FH plane.

105. Important diagnostic tool for achieving accurate implant angulation -

1. Diagnostic template.
2. Wakeup.
3. Mounted diagnostic cast.
4. Surgical template.

106. Cavosuface margin angulation in chamfer finish line is -

1. Always 90o.
2. 90o or less then 90o.
3. 90o or more than 90o.
4. 120o.

107. To increase resistance form of an excessively tapered preparation -

1. Reduce height of preparation to shorten arc of rotation.
2. Increase cervical reduction to taper.
3. Add groove.
4. Use adhesive cement.

108. Face bow is used to transfer -

1. Axis-orbital plane.
2. Frankfort horizontal plane.
3. Camper’s plane.
4. Occlusal plane.

109. For a patient with missing canine what type of prosthesis we will prefer -

1. Three unit FPD.
2. Resin retained FPD.
3. Implant retained crown.
4. It will depend on patient choice.

110. A pier abutment is -

1. Periodontal weak abutment.
2. With an edentulous space on both side of the abutment.
3. Edentulous space one side of the abutment.
4. Abutment adjacent to edentulous space.

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91. Distribution of blood flow is mainly regulated by the -

1. Arteries.
2. Arterioles.
3. Capillaries.
4. Venules.

92. In which of the following a reduction in arterial oxygen tension occurs?

1. Anaemia.
2. CO poisoning.
3. Moderate exercice.
4. Hypoventilation.

93. A 25 year old female presents with 2 year history of repetitive, irresistible thoughts of contamination with dirt associated with repetitive hand washing. She reports these thoughts to be her own and distressing; but is not able to overcome them along with medications. She is most likely to benefit from which of the following therapies.

1. Exposure and response prevention.
2. Systematic desensitization.
3. Assertiveness training.
4. Sensate focusing.

94. Dry mouth during antidepressant therapy is caused blockade of -

1. Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors.
2. Serotonergic receptors.
3. Dopaminergic receptors.
4. GABA receptors.

95. In which one of the following conditions the Sialography is contraindicated?

1. Ductal calculus.
2. Chronic parotitis.
3. Acute parotitis.
4. Recurrent sialadenitis.

96. The most common site of leak in CSF Rhinorrhoea is -

1. Sphenoid sinus.
2. Frontal sinus.
3. Cribriform plate.
4. Tegmen tympani.

97. The technique employed in radiotheraphy to counteract the effect of tumour motion due to breathing is known as -

1. Arc technique.
2. Modulation.
3. Gating.
4. Shunting.

98. Gamma camera in nuclear medicine is used
for -

1. Organ imaging.
2. Measuring the radioactivity.
3. Monitoring the surface contamination.
4. RIA.

99. Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins?

1. IgA.
2. IgG.
3. IgM.
4. IgE.

100. Lumbar sympathectomy is of value in the management of -

1. Intermittent claudication.
2. Distal ischaemia affecting the skin of the toes.
3. Arteriovenuous Fistula.
4. Back pain.

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81. All of the following are true about manifestations of vitamin E deficiency, except -

1. Hemolytic anemia.
2. Posterior column abnormalities.
3. Cerebellar ataxia.
4. Autonomic dyfunction.

82. Differential expression of same gene depending on parent of origin is referred to as -

1. Genomic imprinting.
2. Mosaicism.
3. Anticipation.
4. Nonpenetrance.

83. Al l of the following statements are true regarding reversible cell injury, except -

1. Formation of amorphous densities in the mitochondrial matrix.
2. Diminished generation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
3. Formation of blebs in the plasma membrane.
4. Detachment of ribosomes from the granular endoplasmic reticulum.

84. All of the following vascular changes are observed in acute inflammation, except -

1. Vasodilation.
2. Stasis of blood.
3. Increased vascular permeability.
4. Decreased hydrostatic pressure.

85. Which one of the following serum levels would help in distinguishing an acute liver disease from chronic liver disease?

1. Aminotransaminase.
2. Alkaline phosphatase.
3. Bilirubin.
4. Albumin.

86. All of the following are topically used sulphonamides, except -

1. Sulphacetamide.
2. Sulphadiazine.
3. Silver sulphadiazine.
4. Mafenide.

87. The group of antibiotics, which possess additional anti-inflammatory and immunooduatory activities, is -

1. Tetracyclines.
2. Polypeptide antibiotics.
3. Fluoroquinolones.
4. Macrolides.

88. One of the following is not penicillinase susceptible -

1. Amoxicillin.
2. Penicillin G.
3. Piperacillin.
4. Cloxacillin.

89. S.A. node acts as a pacemaker of the heart because of the fact that it -

1. Is capable of generating impulses spontaneously.
2. Has rich sympathetic innervations.
3. Has poor cholinergic innervations.
4. Generates impulses at the highest rate.

90. The first physiological response to high environmental temperature is -

1. Sweating.
2. Vasodilatation.
3. Decrease heat production.
4. Non-shivering thermogenesis.

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71. All of the following organisms are known to survive intracellularly, except -

1. Neisseria meningitides.
2. Salmonella typhi.
3. Streptococcus pyogenes.
4. Legionella pneumophila.

72. Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following, except -

1. Tissue culture.
2. Embryonated eggs.
3. Animals
4. Chemically defined media.

73. It is true regarding the normal microbial flora present on the skin and mucous membranes
that -

1. It cannot be eradicated by antimicrobial agents.
2. It is absent in the stomach due to the acidic pH.
3. It establishes in the body only after the neonatal period.
4. The flora in the small bronchi is similar to that of the trachea.

74. The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum?

1. IgG1.
2. IgG2.
3. IgG3.
4. Igg4.

75. A bacterial disease that has been associated with the 3 “Rs” i.e. rats, ricefields, and rainfall is -

1. Leptospirosis.
2. Plague.
3. Melioidosis.
4. Rodent-bite fever.

76. In Radionuclide imaging the most useful radio pharmaceutical for skeletal imaging is -

1. Gallium 67 (67Ga).
2. Technetium-sulphur-colloid (99mTc-Sc).
3. Technetium (99mTc).
4. Technetium –99m linked to Methylene disphosphonate (99mTc-MDP).

77. The most common and earliest manifestation of carcinoma of the glottis is -

1. Hoarseness.
2. Haemoptysis.
3. Cervical lymph nodes.
4. Stridor.

78. Abbey-Estlander flap is used in the reconstruction of -

1. Buccal mucosa.
2. Lip.
3. Tongue.
4. Palate.

79. Androphonia can be corrected by doing -

1. Type 1 Thyroplasty.
2. Type 2 Thyroplasty.
3. Type 3 Thyroplasty.
4. Type 4 Thyroplasty.

80. In which one of the following perineural invasion in head and neck cancer is most commonly seen?

1. Adenocarcinoma.
2. Adenoid cystic carcinoma.
3. Basal cell adenoma.
4. Squamous cell carcinoma.

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61. The diagnostic power of a test to correctly exclude the disease is reflected by -

1. Sensitivity.
2. Specificity.
3. Positive predictivity.
4. Negative predictivity

62. In chronic arsenic poisoning the following samples can be sent for laboratory exmination, except -

1. Nail clippings.
2. Hair samples.
3. Bone biopsy.
4. Blood sample.

63. The most reliable criteria in gustafson’s method of identification is -

1. Cementum apposition.
2. Transparency of root.
3. Attrition.
4. Rot resorption.

64. The minimum age at which an individual is responsible for his criminal act is -

1. 7 years.
2. 12 years.
3. 16 years.
4. 21 years.

65. The gold standard for the diagnosis of osteoporosis is -

1. Dual energy X-ray absorptiometry.
2. Single energy X-ray absorptiometry.
3. Ultrasound.
4. Quantitative computed tomography.

66. All of the following can cause osteoporosis, except -

1. Hyperparathyroidism.
2. Steroid use.
3. Fluorosis
4. Thyrotoxicosis

67. Hypercalcemia associated with malignancy is most often mediated by -

1. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
2. Parathyroid hormone related protein (PTHrP).
3. Interleukin – 6 (IL-6).
4. Calcitonin.

68. 5’-Nucleotidase activity is increased in -

1. Bone diseases.
2. Prostate cancer.
3. Chronic rental failure.
4. Cholestatic disorders.

69. Minimal Occlusal clearance on centric cusp for cast metal is -

1. 0.5 mm.
2. 1 mm.
3. 1.5 mm.
4. 2 mm.

70. Vitamin B12 deficiency can give rise to all of the following, except -

1. Myelopathy.
2. Optic atrophy.
3. Peripheral neuropathy.
4. Myopathy.

AIPGE 2005 Dental 6

The amino acid residue having an imino side chain is -

1. Lysine.
2. Histidine
3. Tyrosine.
4. Proline.

52. CO2 is primarily transported in the arterial blood as –

1. Dissolved CO2.
2. Carbonic Acid.
3. Carbamino-hemoglobin.
4. Bicarbonate.

53. ‘Endemic Disease’ means that a disease -

1. Occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy.
2. Is constantly present in a given population group.
3. Exhibits seasonal pattern.
4. Is Prevalent among animals.

54. Which one of the following statements about influence of smoking on risk of coronary heart disease (CHD) is not true?

1. Influence of smoking is independent of other risk factors for CHD.
2. Influence of smoking is only additive to other risk factors for CHD.
3. Influence of smoking is synergistic to other factors for CHD.
4. Influence of smoking is directly related to number of cigarettes smoked per day.

55. What is the color-coding of bag in hospitals to dispose off human anatomical wastes such as body parts?

1. Yellow.
2. Black.
3. Red.
4. Blue.

56. WHO defines adolescent age between -

1. 10 – 19 years of age.
2. 10 – 14 years of age.
3. 10 – 25 years of age.
4. 9 – 14 years of age.

57. The following tests are used to check the efficiency of pasteurization of milk, except -

1. Phosphatase test.
2. Standard plate count.
3. Coliform count.
4. Methylene blue reduction test.

58. For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct, except -

1. Give immunoglobulins for passive immunity.
2. Give ARV.
3. Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage.
4. Immediately wash wound with soap and water.

59. Transplantation of Human Organs Act was passed by Government of India in –

1. 1996.
2. 1993.
3. 1998.
4. 1994.

60. Total Cholesterol level = a + b (calorie intake) + c (physical activity) + d (body mass index) is an example of -

1. Simple linear regression.
2. Simple curvilinear regression.
3. Multiple linear regression.
4. Multiple logistic regression.