MDS Aspirants

AIPGE 2011 Dental

2011-01-11T07:11:00.001-08:00

6.Heterozygous sickle cell anemia esistant towards:
Malaria

7.Scrub typhus all except:
Transmitted when adult mite feeds..

8.0.75 negative predictive value means??

9.Cooleys anemia:
beta thalassemia major

10.Craniosynostosis,preaxial polysyndactyly...
Carpenters syndrome

11. normal CD4 cell count should be above:
1000/cu.mm

12.Not a cause of vascular headache:
Anesthesia dolorosa

AIPGE 2011 Dental

2011-01-11T07:10:00.000-08:00

when bile pool is low recycling becomes
1. faster
2. slower
3.unchanged
4. bears no relation

qs about mech of corticosteroids,
cerebellar lesions
migraine prophylaxis
iv anesthetic causing bronchodialation,
tocolytic agents,
normal cd4 counts
oxycephaly
donovanosis
prpofol
headache of vascular origin
3rd molar extaction
down syndromne
acute leukemia predispong factors
cooleys anemia
maternal mortalityrate
ant ethmoidal nerve
fatal ds- multiple myeloma etc
juvenile perio bacteria
ace inhibitors
incidence > prev
turnrs hypo

1.Non-respi function of lungs:
sodium balance

2.Function of bronchiaL circulation:
gaseous exchange

3.Sphingomyelinase deficiency, mental retardation etc:
Nieman picks disease

4.Rural and urban difference(PSM ques):
TB

5.Resurgence of malaria all except:
Resistane in host

AIPGE 2011 Dental

2011-01-11T07:09:00.002-08:00

Few other questions
1.not an occupational disease
a.lung ca
b.skin ca
c.liver ca
d.leukemia

2.all are STD except
a.herpes
b.scabies
c.candida
d.mycobacterium leprae

3.minimum score of GCS
a.1
b.3@@
c.7
d.

4.all are used in pitutary adenoma except
a.orlistat
b.
c.
d.letrozol

5.both CMI and HUMORAL IMMUNITY are best elicted by?
a.polysacchride Ag
b.protein Ag
c.
d.lipid Ag

6.which of these drugs interacts with warfarin but doesnt increase INR
a. OCP
b.metoclopramide
c.
d.erythromycin

7.best time for interferon therapy
a. when virus enters cell
b.DNA/RNA replication
c.protein replication
d.uncoating of virus

8. common occupational disease
a.lung ca
b.skin ca @@@@
c.liver ca
d.leukemia

9. all cause secondary polycythemia except
a.high altitude
b.hemangioblastoma
c.myeloproliferative disorder
pheochromocytoma

10. decrased metbolic rate is seen in
a.obesity @@@@
b.hyperthyrodism
c.feeding
d.exercise

11. which of the following tests is not used for detection for specic aneuploidy?
a.FISH
b.RT-PCR
c.lQF-PCR
d.microarray@@@@@@@2

12. all cause secondary polycythemia except
a.high altitude
b.hemangioblastoma
c.myeloproliferative disorder @@@@???????
pheochromocytoma

13. not carrying parasympathetic fibres?
a.trochlear @@@@@@@2
b.facial
c.occulomotor
d, glossopharyngeal

14. sensory supply of soft palate
facial
vagus
glossopharyngeal
maxillary

15. all of true relation to scrub typhus except?
a.mites act as reservior
b.tetra is the drug of choice
c.transmitted when aduld mites feed on hosts @@@@@@
d,

16. fulmiative hepatitis in pregnant woman by
a.hep C
b.HEP B
c.HEP D
d, HEP E

Q17. india aims to eliminate which of the following diseases by 2015?
a.malaria
b.filariasis @@@@
c.kala azar
d,TB

18. interdental col is prone to inflammation bcz
epithelium is non keratinized
plaque accumulates
is difficult to clean
all of d above

19. sulcular membrane acts as semipermeable membrane through which

bacterial products pass thru saliva
fluid from gingiva seeps into saliva
both
none

20. attached gingiva is

always stippled
non keratinized
resistant to masticatory forces
resistant to inflammatory changes

21. m/c cause of dry mouth in adults
tranquillizers
anti histaminics
insulin
birth control pills

22. m/c clinical sign of trauma occlusal trauma
wear facet
tooth mobility
enamel fracture
cusp fracture

23. probable etiology of gingivitis
high progesterone
deficiency of estrogen n testosterone
preganancy
aldosterone

24. supragingival plaque undergoes which of d foll changes wid time
plaque microflora bcms more g-ve
plaque microflora bcms more g+ve

25. difference betwn color of supragingival n sub gingival calculus
ph
death of wbc
haemolysis of rbc
all of d above

26. in multiple myeloma [ bence jones ] which 1 of the following is seen?
a.alpha heavy chain disease
b.gamma heavy chain disease
c.mu heavy chain disease@@@@@@
d,epsilon heavy chain disease

27. mass chemoprophylaxis is endemic area recommended for all the following except??
a.yaws
b.filariasis
c.leprosy@@@@@@@@@@@
d,trachoma

28. The following are true about tetanus acquired through traumatic wound:
a. Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn cells in the spinal cord
b. the tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin acts on the post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse transmission.
c. the patient should be given antitoxin intravenously
d. the presence of Clostridium tetani in the wound can be identified by a positive Nagler reaction

AIPGE 2011 Dental

2011-01-11T07:09:00.001-08:00

Q26. Radiograph alone can diagnose:

1. Periodontal pocket
2. Periodontal abscess
3. Anatomic root length
4. Bifurcation involvement

Q27. When pins are used in amalgam, strength of amalgam:

1. Deceases
2. Increases
3. Remains same
4. May increase or decrease

Q28. Most common cause of TMJ ankylosis is:

1. Trauma
2. Development disturbances
3. Infection
4. Atrophy

Q29. parenteral nutrion which is not given
fibre
micronutrient
carbohydrate
fat

Q30. a young boy had a radio opaque area found at the apex of a permant tooth wid deep caries !!!

condensing osteitis
apical periodontitis
chronic periodontitis
???????????????

Q31. 'indifferent' fibers are

a. elastic fibers@@@@@@@@@@@
b. oxytalan fibers
c. collagen fibers
d. None of the above

D ans for dis s COLLAGEN FIBERS ONLY

ref - carranza 9th ed pg no. 38, its also given in glickmann's clinical periodontology..............

Both d book states- In addition to these fibers types i.e. principal collagen, oxytalan n eluanin, SMALL COLLAGEN FIBERS ASSOCIATED WITH THE LARGE PRINCIPAL COLLAGEN FIBERS HAVE BEEN DESCRIBED. THESE FIBERS RUN IN ALL DIRECTIONS FROM A PLEXUS CALLED THE '' INDIFFERENT FIBER PLEXUS''.

Q32. in gingivitis, the role of immunoglobulins is consistent with increased number of

fibroblases
neutrophils
lymphocytes
plasma cells

Q33. Gingival clefts may be formed by
occlusal disharmonies
faulty tooth brushing
normal frenum attachment
use of dental floss

Q34. In short which of the following is not and effect of increased prolactin level,..

a. Visual field defects
b. Gonadal dysfunction
c. Headache
d. Exccessive lactation

Q35. Mother donated one kidney to her daughter, what type of graft is it?

Allo.......
Xeno
Auto
Iso

Q36. high viscocity saliva related to increase caries in children

a. really true
b. partially true
c. partially false
d. really false

Q37. 'not sensory to palate?

a. facial n
b , glossopharyngeal n
c. asending pharyngeal n
d. vagus

Q38. dengue hemorrhagic fever caused by
1 bacteria
2 fungi
3 virus
4 bacteria superadded on virus

Q39. involuntary movement of eye ball by

a. visual cortex
b. cerebellum
c.?
d. ?

Q40. 'ant ethmoidal n suplies all except?

a. ethmoidal air cells
b. maxillary sinus
c, dural sheath of ant cranial fossa
d. interior of nasal cavity

Q41. 'nitrates are not used in

a. CCF
b. esophageal spasm
c. renal colic
d. cyanide poisoning

Q42. whch 1 not converted to an active metabolite?

a. quinapril
b. fosinapril
c. benzopril
d. lisnopril

AIPGE 2011 Dental

2011-01-11T07:07:00.000-08:00

AIPG 2011 Dental Questions Recall

1. 'indifferent' fibers are

a. elastic fibers
b. oxytalan fibers
c. collagen fibers
d. None of the above

2. Apical migration of epithelial attachment with corresponding recession of marginal gingiva results in

a.Shallow sulcus
b. gingival pocket formation
c. infrabony pocket formation
d. periodontal pocket formation

3. Gingival clefts may be formed by
a. occlusal disharmonies
b. faulty tooth brushing
c. normal frenum attachment
d. use of dental floss

4. Tobacco chewing is thought to be contributing / predisposing factor in which condition ?

a. desquamative gingivitis
b. ANUG
c.juvenile periodontitis
d. erythema multiforme

5. ADH from

a. pre optic
b. supra optic
c. para venticular
d. post optic

6. blood coagualation defect not seen?

a. after taking brufen
b. thalasamia
c. VWF defiecien
d.

7. attached gingiva is

a. always stippled
b. non keratinized
c. resistant to masticatory stress and forces
d. resistant to inflammatory changes

8. Type of bone present in interradicular area
cortical
cancellous
osteophytic
exophyric

9. type of bone present on labial surface of anterior teeth
cortical
cancellous
exophytic
osteophytic

10. most common cause of drymouth in adults
tarnquilizers
anti-histaminics
insulin
birth control pills

11. most common clinical sign of occlusal trauma
wear facets
tooth mobility
enamel cracks
cuspal fracture

12. probable etiology of gingivosis is

high progesterone levels
def of estrogen and testosterone
pregnancy
aldosterone deficiency

13. supragingival plaque undergoes which of the following changes with time.

plaque mass decreases
plaque microflora becomes more gram positive
plaque microflora becomes more gram negative
plaque microflora becomes predominantly spirochetal

14. difference between sub and supragingival calculus is related to
pH of saliva
death of leukocytes
hemolysis of erythrocytes
all of the above

15. which of the following is a characteristic of supragingival plaque and not of sub gingival plaque in humans

motile bacteria are predominant
spirochetes are evident microscopically
gram negative bacteria are predominant
bacterial composition is altered by dietary sugar consumption

16. delayed hypersensitivity or cell mediated immune reactions occur in patients with periodontal diseases because they often have

-IgG antibody reactine with plaque bacterial antigens
-T lymphocytes sensitized to plaque bacterial antigens
-soluble immune complexes within involves gingival tissues
-all of the above

17. which of the following is most useful in diffentiating an acute periodontal abscess from pa abscess

-type of exhudate-
-nature of swelling
-intensity of pain
-result of periodontal probing

18. which index would u use to access the severity of periodontitis in epidemiological studiesof a large population.
-pma index
-gingival index
-periodontal index
-sulcus bleeding index

19. which of the following plaque indices does not use disclosing agent

-plaque component of periodontal disease index
-debris component of Simplified Oral Hygiene Index
-modified Quingley Hein plaque index
-all of the above

20. following plaque index divides each tooth surface into 9 areas

-php index
-plaue index by silness and loe
- modified Navy plaque index
- glass criteria for scoring debris

21. in gingivitis, the role of immunoglobulins is consistent with increased number of

-fibroblases
-neutrophils
-lymphocytes
-plasma cells

22. teeth that are least affected by periodontal disease are

-lower first molars and upper anteriors
-lower premolars and upper canines
-lower first molars and upper incisors and premolars
-lower centrals, laterals and upper molars
Q23. dengue hemorrhagic fever caused by
1 bacteria
2 fungi
3 virus
4 bacteria superadded on virus

Q24. Coeliac plexus is located:

1. Anterolateral & around the aorta
2. Posterolateral & around the aorta
3. Anteromedial to lumbar sympathetic chain
4. Posterolateral to lumbar sympathetic chain

Q25. hypercapnia causes
low blood pH
high blood ph
no change
none

AIPGE 2005 Dental 20

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191. Hodgkin’s disease is diagnosed by finding which cells in the biopsy from lymph glands -

1. Recquet cell.
2. Tzanck cell.
3. Reed Sternberg cell.
4. Lacunar cell.

192. The best laboratory test to use in the diagnosis of Lupus vulgaris in the oral cavity is -

1. Bacterial smear.
2. Blood studies.
3. Biopsy.
4. Blood chemistry.

193. The most common benign tumor occurring in oral cavity is -

1. Papilloma.
2. Fibroma.
3. Adenoma.
4. Epulis.

194. Name the lesion, which is not a radiolucent lesion of the jaws -

1. Ameloblastoma.
2. Cherubism.
3. Focal periapical osteopetrosis.
4. Odontogenic.

195. Name the lesion where cotton wool, multifocal radiodense conglomerates is not seen usually -

1. Gardner’s Syndrome.
2. Cemento-osseous dysplasia.
3. Paget’s disease.
4. Fibrous dysplasia.

196. What is non-characteristic of Eagle’s syndrome?

1. Excessive larimation.
2. Pain during Mandibular movement.
3. Stabbing type pain originates in the tonsillar region.
4. When the jaws are closed the pain subsided.

197. The posterior tooth that gives a better support
is -

1. With convergent roots.
2. Divergent roots.
3. Conical roots.
4. Curved roots.

198. According to the Freudian psychosexual stages of development the stage that corresponds with development of mixed dentition and character formation is –
1. Concrete operational
2. Latency
3. Phallic
4. Genital

199. The range of wavelength of visible light curing system is:
1. 400-700 nm
2. 410-500 nm
3. 365-400 nm
4. 700-900 nm

200. The commonest teeth involved in transposition are:
1. Maxillary central incisor and lateral incisor
2. Maxillary canine and first premolar
3. Maxillary first premolar and second premolar
4. Maxillary canine and lateral incisor

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181. Which position is the most important in diagnosis of anterior or posterior crossbite?

1. Habitual position.
2. Lateral shift.
3. Maximum intercuspation.
4. The point of first contact at centric relation.

182. Which of the following forces best accomplish orthodontic tooth movement?

1. Heavy and continuous.
2. Heavy and intermittent.
3. Light and continuous.
4. Light and intermittent.

183. Which of the following is the least stable orthodontic correction?

1. Maxillary expansion.
2. Rotations.
3. Overbite.
4. Overjet.

184. Hyperplasia with regard to tissue growth refers to -

1. An increase in the number of cells.
2. An increase in the size of the cells.
3. Cellular maturation.
4. Cellular differentiation from stem cells.

185. The midpalatal suture is most likely to open at which following ages of expansion?

1. 18 years old.
2. 13 years old.
3. 25 years old.
4. 55 years old.

186. Functional appliances -

1. Only move teeth.
2. Can change the direction of growth.
3. Are fabricated in the original Mandibular position.
4. Correct malocclusion rapidly.

187. According to Wolff’s law -

1. Human teeth drift mesially as interproximal wear occurs.
2. Pressure causes bone resorption.
3. The optimal level of force for moving teeth is 10 to 200 grams.
4. Bone trabeculae line up in response to mechanical stresses.

188. Which of the following teeth is most likely to be congenitally missing?

1. Maxillary central incisor.
2. Mandibular canine.
3. Mandibular second premolar.
4. Maxillary first premolar.

189. The term refers to a type of fusion in which the formed teeth are joined only along the line of cementum -

1. Gemination.
2. Fusion.
3. Concrescence.
4. Dilaceration.

190. Which is a degeneration disorder characterized by atrophic changes of the deeper structures (e.g. fat, muscle, cartilage and bone) involving one side of the face?

1. Scleroderma
2. Parry Romberg Syndrome.
3. Miescher’s Syndrome.
4. Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome.

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171. The permanent anterior tooth that most often shows variation in size is the -

1. Mandibular canine.
2. Mandibular central incisor.
3. Maxillary canine.
4. Maxillary lateral incisor.

172. Relative to primary mandibular incisors, permanent mandibular incisors erupt -

1. Lingually.
2. Facially.
3. Distally.
4. Mesially.

173. In cephalometrics, the Frankfort plane is constructed -

1. Horizontally from nasion through portion.
2. Horizontally from nasion to the superior aspect of external auditory meatus.
3. Vertically from orbitale through the maxillary canine.
4. Horizontally from orbitale to the superior aspect of the external auditory meatus.

174. The last primary tooth to be replaced by a permanent tooth is usually -

1. Maxillary canine.
2. Mandibular canine.
3. Maxillary first molar.
4. Mandibular second molar.
175. Which is the predominant factor in the formation of the alveolar process?

1. Eruption of teeth.
2. Normal process of growth.
3. Lengthening of the condyle.
4. Overall growth of the bodies of the maxilla and the mandible.

176. Resistance units of equal size pulling against each is an example of which form of
anchorage -

1. Cortical anchorage.
2. Reciprocal anchorage.
3. Reinforced anchorage.
4. Stationary anchorage.

177. A single force applied at which point of a tooth will allow complete translation of the tooth -

1. At the apex.
2. At the incisal edge.
3. At the center of resistance.
4. At the center of rotation.

178. Which of the fibers attached to cementum are most likely to contribute to replace of tooth rotation -

1. Apical fibers.
2. Gingival group of fibers.
3. Horizontal fibers.
4. Oblique fibers.

179. What is the average amount of Leeway space available in the upper arch?

1. 0.9 mm.
2. 1.8 mm.
3. 3.5 mm.
4. 5.0 mm.

180. As age advances, the human profile generally -

1. Remain the same.
2. Increase in convexity.
3. Decreases in convexity.
4. Decreases in concavity.

AIPGE 2005 Dental 17

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161. Hypercementosis of the entire dentition is a feature of -

1. Alber Schonberg disease.
2. Paget’s disease.
3. Lathyrism.
4. Low-grade periapical inflammation.

162. Desmodont is another name for -

1. The tooth with one wall pocket.
2. Tooth with three-wall pocket.
3. Periodontal ligament.
4. Dehiscence.

163. The oxygen consumption of normal gingiva is -

1. 1.6  0.37.
2. 0.9  0.22
3. 2.7  0.41.
4. 1.9  0.21.

164. Glucose levels in gingival crevicular fluid (GCF) are -

1. Equal to glucose level in serum.
2. Zero.
3. 3 – 4 times greater than serum levels.
4. More than 10 times the serum levels.

165. A black line on the gingiva, which follows the contour of the margin, is due to -

1. Lead.
2. Argyria.
3. Iron.
4. Mercury.

166. Gracey Curette No. 11-12 are used for -

1. Anterior teeth.
2. Posterior teeth mesial.
3. Posterior teeth distal.
4. Posterior teeth facial and lingual.

167. The brushing technique recommended for patients with periodontal disease is -

1. Scrub technique.
2. Sulcular technique.
3. Roll technique.
4. Circular technique.

168. Embrasure characterized by a slight to moderate recession of interdental papilla are -

1. Type I.
2. Type II.
3. Type III.
4. Type IV.

169. Malocclusion characterized by retroclined central and proclined lateral incisor is -

1. Class II Division I.
2. Class II Division II.
3. Class III.
4. Class I.

170. Six keys to normal occlusion were given by -

1. Andrews.
2. Angie.
3. Tweed.
4. Steiner.

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151. Which of the following statement is true with reference to the Glasgow Coma Scale?

1. In the first 24 hrs following a head injury an overall score of 11 indicates a good prognosis.
2. An overall score of less than 9 indicates a poor prognosis.
3. Gives an accurate impression of the neurological status.
4. Cannot be assessed in an unconscious patient.

152. Mucoperiosteal flaps -

1. When raised do not cause postoperative swelling and pain.
2. Are raised whenever bone removal is desired to facilitate extraction.
3. Are routinely raised during extraction.
4. When raised will cause trauma and injury to underlying osseous tissues.

153. A dermatome is used -

1. To remove scar tissue.
2. To harvest skin grafts.
3. To abrade skin which is pigmented.
4. For painting of lacerated soft tissue.

154. In Treacher Collin’s Syndrome their is -

1. Upward sloping of the palpebral fissure.
2. Poorly developed or absent malar bones.
3. Progenia and Mandibular prognathism.
4. No less of hearing.

155. Pierre Robin Syndrome is associated with -

1. Micrognathia.
2. Cleft of the lip and palate.
3. Tetrology of Fallot.
4. Syndactally.

156. Vitamin A -

1. Is water soluble.
2. Deficiency causes impaired vision.
3. Maintains normal plasma calcium levels.
4. Is required for formation of clotting factors.

157. Which of the following is used to show the base of the skull, sphenoid sinus, position and orientation of the condyles and fractures of the zygomatic arch ?

1. The TMJ Surgery.
2. Submentovertex Projection.
3. Reverse-Towne Projection.
4. The Facial Profile Survey.

158. Which survey has the purpose of examining fractures of the condylar neck of the
mandible?

1. Lateral Jaw Projection.
2. Lateral Skull Projection.
3. Waters Projection.
4. Reverse-Townes View.

159. In patients infected with HIV will have -

1. Elevated blastogenesis.
2. Depressed serum globulin levels.
3. High T4-T8 ratio.
4. Thrombocytopenia.

160. Conditional gingival enlargements is usually
not -

1. Hormonal.
2. Leukemic.
3. Granuloma pyogenium.
4. Drug induced.

AIPGE 2005 Dental 15

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141. Which of the following dentitions shows the highest frequency of occurrence of supernumerary teeth?

1. Maxillary deciduous dentition.
2. Maxillary permanent dentition.
3. Mandibular deciduous dentition.
4. Mandibular permanent dentition.

142. What is the thickness of the layer of prismless enamel found in primary teeth?

1. 25 m.
2. 50 m.
3. 75 m.
4. 100 m.

143. When is the first evidence of calcification of primary teeth?

1. 4 months in-utero.
2. 4 and ½ months in-utero.
3. 5 months in-utero.
4. 6 months in-utero.

144. By what age does the startle and grasp reflex disappear?

1. 1 year.
2. 1 ½ year.
3. 2 years.
4. 3 years.

145. Who proposed the operant conditioning theory of child psychology?

1. Pavlov.
2. Skinner.
3. Jean Piaget.
4. Sigmond Freud.

146. The longest acting local anesthetic is -

1. Prilocaine.
2. Lignocaine.
3. Bupivacaine.
4. Ropivacaine.

147. The first drug of choice to be administered for anaphylaxis is -

1. Hydrocortisone.
2. Adrenaline.
3. Atropine.
4. Chlorpheneramine maliate.

148. In Gillies temporal approach for reduction of Zygomatic arch fracture Rowes Zygomatic Elevator is placed between -

1. Superficial fascia and the temporal fascia.
2. Between the temporal bone and the temporalis muscle.
3. Between the temporal fascia and the temporalis muscle.
4. Skin and superficial fascia.

149. The most lethal of complications due to blood transfusion is -

1. Jaundice.
2. Antigen antibody reaction.
3. Hepatitis B transmission.
4. HIV transmission.

150. In Cardio pulmonary resuscitation chest compressions is done -

1. On the upper part of sternum.
2. On the Xiphisterum.
3. On the middle of the lower part of the sternum.
4. On the left side of the chest.

AIPGE 2005 Dental 14

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131. 1 PPM fluoride implies -

1. 1 mg of fluoride in 1 liter of water.
2. 1 gm of fluoride in 1 liter of water.
3. 0.1 gm of fluoride in 1 liter of water.
4. 1 gm of fluoride in 100 ml of water.

132. Caries activity test that gives a quantitative determination of the acidogenic microorganism in the oral cavity -

1. Fosdick test.
2. Synder test.
3. Abans test.
4. Blawary Reductase test.

133. Class II cavity preparation for amalgam restoration in deciduous teeth requires -

1. More buccolingual extension.
2. More mesiodistal extension.
3. More gingival.
4. More cervical.

134. Amalgam achieves 70% of the strength by -

1. 2 hours.
2. 4 hours.
3. 8 hours.
4. 16 hours.

135. Hand over mouth technique was first described by -

1. Dr. Evangeline Jordan.
2. Addelson and Gold fried.
3. Dr. G. V. Black.
4. Dr. Goldman.

136. Nirous Oxide is a colourless, sweet smelling gas with a density of -

1. 1.5.
2. 0.5.
3. 2.5.
4. 3.5.

137. Oral screen -

1. Causes the child to breathe through the nose.
2. Allows for the passage of air through mouth.
3. Prevents passage of air through nares.
4. Allows the passage of air through mouth and nose.

138. Ormocers are -

1. Organically modified composites.
2. Inorganically modified composites.
3. Organically modified Glass Inomer Cement.
4. Inorganically modified Glass Inomer Cement.

139. Nanotillers are in the range of –

1. 10 – 100 microns.
2. 0.1 – 1 microns.
3. 0.01 – 0.1 microns.
4. 0.005 – 0.01 microns.

140. Speech retardation may be considered if the child does not talk by -

1. 12 months.
2. 18 months.
3. 24 months.
4. 36 months.

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121. The average diameter of coronal dentinal tubules near the pulp is -

1. 0.2 – 0.5 microns.
2. 2 – 3 microns.
3. 0.2 – 0.3 microns.
4. 4 – 7 microns.

122. Ecologic determinants of plaque depend on all, except -

1. Sugar content of diet.
2. Host resistance.
3. Age and sex of the patient.
4. Status of dentition.

123. Salivary pellicle is composed of the following, except -

1. Immunoglobulin G.
2. Immunoglobulin A.
3. Amylase.
4. Albumin.

124. Caries detection dye can stain the following, except -

1. Granular nacrotic tissue.
2. Dry, leathery dentin.
3. Reversibly denatured collage.
4. Irreversibly denatured collage.

125. Torsional force is -

1. Compression.
2. Tensile force.
3. Shear.
4. Transverse bending force.

126. All of the following are true for traditional solution, except -

1. It is not necessary in moderately deep cavities under glass ionomer restoration.
2. Have film thickness of 1 – 50 microns.
3. Do not provide thermal or electric insulation.
4. Protect the pulp from reaction products leaching out of restoration.

127. One of the following is not true about treatment of dentinal hypersensitivity with dentin bonding agents -

1. It denatures protein.
2. It forms a hybrid layer.
3. It does not alter dentin permeability.
4. It forms resin tags into dentinal tubule.

128. Which of the following is not true about hand instruments used in operative dentistry?

1. They are generally made of stainless steel.
2. Nickel-Cobalt-chromium is never used in its fabrication.
3. Carbon steel is more efficient than stainless steel.
4. It can be made with stainless steel with carbide inserts.

129. Which one of the following does not commonly survive in a periapical lesion?

1. Pseudomonas.
2. Streptococcus.
3. Porphyromonas.
4. Actinomyces.

130. In endodontic surgery, which of the following about chromic gut suture is not true -

1. It properties are inferior to plain gut suture.
2. It is coated with chromium tri-oxide.
3. It is less biocompatible than plain gut suture.
4. Its absorption is faster than the plain gut sutures.

AIPGE 2005 Dental 12

2010-08-13T23:27:00.001-07:00

111. In case, if maxillary canine is missing and we have to make a tooth supported FPD, abutments will be -

1. Central incisor, lateral incisor and 1st pre-molar.
2. Lateral incisor, 1st premolar and 2nd premolar.
3. Lateral incisor and 1st premolar.
4. It depends upon periodontal status of remaining teeth.

112. Pivoting movement better resisted by a tooth preparation if -

1. Diameter is smaller.
2. Diameter is large.
3. Diameter is large and length is small.
4. Do not depend on diameter of tooth.

113. Denture stability refers to resistance of a
denture -

1. To move in a vertical direction away from basal seat.
2. To move in a vertical dimension towards basal seat.
3. To movements on its tissue foundation especially to lateral forces.
4. Against any kind of movement more the 25 m in any direction.

114. Most recent type of denture adhesive is -

1. Salts of Gontrez.
2. Natural gums.
3. Cellulose based salts.
4. Acrylic adhesives.

115. Ideal site for implant placement in a completely edentulous mandible -

1. 1st molar region bilaterally.
2. Retromolar pad area because it is resistant to resorption.
3. Buccal shelf area because it is most ideally suited for loading.
4. Interforaminal region.

116. Beyron point is located at -

1. 13 mm anterior to posterior margin of tragus on a line from center of tragus to outer canthus.
2. 11 mm anterior to posterior margin of tragus on a line from parallel to and 7 mm below FHP.
3. 10 mm anterior to posterior margin of targus on a line from center of tragus to outer canthus.
4. 13 mm anterior to tragus on a line from base of tragus to outer canthus.

117. Pontic design not indicated in anterior region -

1. Ovate pontic.
2. Modified ridge lap pontic.
3. Stein pontic.
4. Spheroidal pontic.

118. Cavity preparation on which location of tooth will give rise to black class I cavity. (Spot the location of caries to make black class I cavity preparation) -

1. 1.
2. 2.
3. 3.
4. 4.
119. Find out the correct contoured buccal surface for food deflection -

1. 1.
2. 2.
3. 3.
4. 4.

120. Which of the following is not true about lubricant for rubber dam placement?

1. Should have water-miscible vehicle.
2. Vaseline is an ideal choice.
3. Should be easy to remove.
4. Should not interfere with bonding procedures.

AIPGE 2005 Dental 11

2010-08-13T23:26:00.001-07:00

101. Shunting effect occurs in complete dentures -

1. If Occlusal plane is lower in molar area.
2. If Occlusal plane is lower in incisor area.
3. If the Occlusal plane is lower in molar as well as incisor area.
4. When patient has poor muscular co-ordination.

102. Training groove is placed in the lower denture -

1. To train the patients tongue position.
2. In cases of mandibulectomy.
3. To train the orbicularis oris muscle.
4. To train tognetic patients.

103. Which one of the following agent is used as a die hardner?

1. Cynoacrylate.
2. Nail polish.
3. Volalite relief agents.
4. Composite Resin.

104. A gnatho dynameter is used to record -

1. Biting force.
2. Centric relation.
3. Vertical dimensions.
4. FH plane.

105. Important diagnostic tool for achieving accurate implant angulation -

1. Diagnostic template.
2. Wakeup.
3. Mounted diagnostic cast.
4. Surgical template.

106. Cavosuface margin angulation in chamfer finish line is -

1. Always 90o.
2. 90o or less then 90o.
3. 90o or more than 90o.
4. 120o.

107. To increase resistance form of an excessively tapered preparation -

1. Reduce height of preparation to shorten arc of rotation.
2. Increase cervical reduction to taper.
3. Add groove.
4. Use adhesive cement.

108. Face bow is used to transfer -

1. Axis-orbital plane.
2. Frankfort horizontal plane.
3. Camper’s plane.
4. Occlusal plane.

109. For a patient with missing canine what type of prosthesis we will prefer -

1. Three unit FPD.
2. Resin retained FPD.
3. Implant retained crown.
4. It will depend on patient choice.

110. A pier abutment is -

1. Periodontal weak abutment.
2. With an edentulous space on both side of the abutment.
3. Edentulous space one side of the abutment.
4. Abutment adjacent to edentulous space.

AIPGE 2005 Dental 10

2010-08-13T23:25:00.001-07:00

91. Distribution of blood flow is mainly regulated by the -

1. Arteries.
2. Arterioles.
3. Capillaries.
4. Venules.

92. In which of the following a reduction in arterial oxygen tension occurs?

1. Anaemia.
2. CO poisoning.
3. Moderate exercice.
4. Hypoventilation.

93. A 25 year old female presents with 2 year history of repetitive, irresistible thoughts of contamination with dirt associated with repetitive hand washing. She reports these thoughts to be her own and distressing; but is not able to overcome them along with medications. She is most likely to benefit from which of the following therapies.

1. Exposure and response prevention.
2. Systematic desensitization.
3. Assertiveness training.
4. Sensate focusing.

94. Dry mouth during antidepressant therapy is caused blockade of -

1. Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors.
2. Serotonergic receptors.
3. Dopaminergic receptors.
4. GABA receptors.

95. In which one of the following conditions the Sialography is contraindicated?

1. Ductal calculus.
2. Chronic parotitis.
3. Acute parotitis.
4. Recurrent sialadenitis.

96. The most common site of leak in CSF Rhinorrhoea is -

1. Sphenoid sinus.
2. Frontal sinus.
3. Cribriform plate.
4. Tegmen tympani.

97. The technique employed in radiotheraphy to counteract the effect of tumour motion due to breathing is known as -

1. Arc technique.
2. Modulation.
3. Gating.
4. Shunting.

98. Gamma camera in nuclear medicine is used
for -

1. Organ imaging.
2. Measuring the radioactivity.
3. Monitoring the surface contamination.
4. RIA.

99. Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins?

1. IgA.
2. IgG.
3. IgM.
4. IgE.

100. Lumbar sympathectomy is of value in the management of -

1. Intermittent claudication.
2. Distal ischaemia affecting the skin of the toes.
3. Arteriovenuous Fistula.
4. Back pain.

AIPGE 2005 Dental 9

2010-08-13T23:24:00.002-07:00

81. All of the following are true about manifestations of vitamin E deficiency, except -

1. Hemolytic anemia.
2. Posterior column abnormalities.
3. Cerebellar ataxia.
4. Autonomic dyfunction.

82. Differential expression of same gene depending on parent of origin is referred to as -

1. Genomic imprinting.
2. Mosaicism.
3. Anticipation.
4. Nonpenetrance.

83. Al l of the following statements are true regarding reversible cell injury, except -

1. Formation of amorphous densities in the mitochondrial matrix.
2. Diminished generation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
3. Formation of blebs in the plasma membrane.
4. Detachment of ribosomes from the granular endoplasmic reticulum.

84. All of the following vascular changes are observed in acute inflammation, except -

1. Vasodilation.
2. Stasis of blood.
3. Increased vascular permeability.
4. Decreased hydrostatic pressure.

85. Which one of the following serum levels would help in distinguishing an acute liver disease from chronic liver disease?

1. Aminotransaminase.
2. Alkaline phosphatase.
3. Bilirubin.
4. Albumin.

86. All of the following are topically used sulphonamides, except -

1. Sulphacetamide.
2. Sulphadiazine.
3. Silver sulphadiazine.
4. Mafenide.

87. The group of antibiotics, which possess additional anti-inflammatory and immunooduatory activities, is -

1. Tetracyclines.
2. Polypeptide antibiotics.
3. Fluoroquinolones.
4. Macrolides.

88. One of the following is not penicillinase susceptible -

1. Amoxicillin.
2. Penicillin G.
3. Piperacillin.
4. Cloxacillin.

89. S.A. node acts as a pacemaker of the heart because of the fact that it -

1. Is capable of generating impulses spontaneously.
2. Has rich sympathetic innervations.
3. Has poor cholinergic innervations.
4. Generates impulses at the highest rate.

90. The first physiological response to high environmental temperature is -

1. Sweating.
2. Vasodilatation.
3. Decrease heat production.
4. Non-shivering thermogenesis.

AIPGE 2005 Dental 8

2010-08-13T23:24:00.001-07:00

71. All of the following organisms are known to survive intracellularly, except -

1. Neisseria meningitides.
2. Salmonella typhi.
3. Streptococcus pyogenes.
4. Legionella pneumophila.

72. Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following, except -

1. Tissue culture.
2. Embryonated eggs.
3. Animals
4. Chemically defined media.

73. It is true regarding the normal microbial flora present on the skin and mucous membranes
that -

1. It cannot be eradicated by antimicrobial agents.
2. It is absent in the stomach due to the acidic pH.
3. It establishes in the body only after the neonatal period.
4. The flora in the small bronchi is similar to that of the trachea.

74. The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum?

1. IgG1.
2. IgG2.
3. IgG3.
4. Igg4.

75. A bacterial disease that has been associated with the 3 “Rs” i.e. rats, ricefields, and rainfall is -

1. Leptospirosis.
2. Plague.
3. Melioidosis.
4. Rodent-bite fever.

76. In Radionuclide imaging the most useful radio pharmaceutical for skeletal imaging is -

1. Gallium 67 (67Ga).
2. Technetium-sulphur-colloid (99mTc-Sc).
3. Technetium (99mTc).
4. Technetium –99m linked to Methylene disphosphonate (99mTc-MDP).

77. The most common and earliest manifestation of carcinoma of the glottis is -

1. Hoarseness.
2. Haemoptysis.
3. Cervical lymph nodes.
4. Stridor.

78. Abbey-Estlander flap is used in the reconstruction of -

1. Buccal mucosa.
2. Lip.
3. Tongue.
4. Palate.

79. Androphonia can be corrected by doing -

1. Type 1 Thyroplasty.
2. Type 2 Thyroplasty.
3. Type 3 Thyroplasty.
4. Type 4 Thyroplasty.

80. In which one of the following perineural invasion in head and neck cancer is most commonly seen?

1. Adenocarcinoma.
2. Adenoid cystic carcinoma.
3. Basal cell adenoma.
4. Squamous cell carcinoma.

AIPGE 2006 Dental 7

2010-08-13T23:23:00.003-07:00

61. The diagnostic power of a test to correctly exclude the disease is reflected by -

1. Sensitivity.
2. Specificity.
3. Positive predictivity.
4. Negative predictivity

62. In chronic arsenic poisoning the following samples can be sent for laboratory exmination, except -

1. Nail clippings.
2. Hair samples.
3. Bone biopsy.
4. Blood sample.

63. The most reliable criteria in gustafson’s method of identification is -

1. Cementum apposition.
2. Transparency of root.
3. Attrition.
4. Rot resorption.

64. The minimum age at which an individual is responsible for his criminal act is -

1. 7 years.
2. 12 years.
3. 16 years.
4. 21 years.

65. The gold standard for the diagnosis of osteoporosis is -

1. Dual energy X-ray absorptiometry.
2. Single energy X-ray absorptiometry.
3. Ultrasound.
4. Quantitative computed tomography.

66. All of the following can cause osteoporosis, except -

1. Hyperparathyroidism.
2. Steroid use.
3. Fluorosis
4. Thyrotoxicosis

67. Hypercalcemia associated with malignancy is most often mediated by -

1. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
2. Parathyroid hormone related protein (PTHrP).
3. Interleukin – 6 (IL-6).
4. Calcitonin.

68. 5’-Nucleotidase activity is increased in -

1. Bone diseases.
2. Prostate cancer.
3. Chronic rental failure.
4. Cholestatic disorders.

69. Minimal Occlusal clearance on centric cusp for cast metal is -

1. 0.5 mm.
2. 1 mm.
3. 1.5 mm.
4. 2 mm.

70. Vitamin B12 deficiency can give rise to all of the following, except -

1. Myelopathy.
2. Optic atrophy.
3. Peripheral neuropathy.
4. Myopathy.

AIPGE 2005 Dental 6

2010-08-13T23:23:00.001-07:00

The amino acid residue having an imino side chain is -

1. Lysine.
2. Histidine
3. Tyrosine.
4. Proline.

52. CO2 is primarily transported in the arterial blood as –

1. Dissolved CO2.
2. Carbonic Acid.
3. Carbamino-hemoglobin.
4. Bicarbonate.

53. ‘Endemic Disease’ means that a disease -

1. Occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy.
2. Is constantly present in a given population group.
3. Exhibits seasonal pattern.
4. Is Prevalent among animals.

54. Which one of the following statements about influence of smoking on risk of coronary heart disease (CHD) is not true?

1. Influence of smoking is independent of other risk factors for CHD.
2. Influence of smoking is only additive to other risk factors for CHD.
3. Influence of smoking is synergistic to other factors for CHD.
4. Influence of smoking is directly related to number of cigarettes smoked per day.

55. What is the color-coding of bag in hospitals to dispose off human anatomical wastes such as body parts?

1. Yellow.
2. Black.
3. Red.
4. Blue.

56. WHO defines adolescent age between -

1. 10 – 19 years of age.
2. 10 – 14 years of age.
3. 10 – 25 years of age.
4. 9 – 14 years of age.

57. The following tests are used to check the efficiency of pasteurization of milk, except -

1. Phosphatase test.
2. Standard plate count.
3. Coliform count.
4. Methylene blue reduction test.

58. For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct, except -

1. Give immunoglobulins for passive immunity.
2. Give ARV.
3. Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage.
4. Immediately wash wound with soap and water.

59. Transplantation of Human Organs Act was passed by Government of India in –

1. 1996.
2. 1993.
3. 1998.
4. 1994.

60. Total Cholesterol level = a + b (calorie intake) + c (physical activity) + d (body mass index) is an example of -

1. Simple linear regression.
2. Simple curvilinear regression.
3. Multiple linear regression.
4. Multiple logistic regression.

AIPGE 2005 Dental 5

2010-08-13T23:21:00.002-07:00

41. Heme is converted to bilirubin mainly in -

1. Kidney.
2. Liver.
3. Spleen.
4. Bone marrow.

42. HIV can be detected an confirmed by -

1. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
2. Reverse transcriptase
3. Real time PCR.
4. Mimic PCR.

43. All of the following hormones have cell surface receptors, except -

1. Adrenalin.
2. Growth Hormones.
3. Insulin.
4. Thyroxine.

44. Fluoride, used in the collection of blood samples for glucose estination, inhibits the enzyme -

1. Glucokinase.
2. Hexokinase.
3. Enolase.
4. Glucose-6-phosphatase.

45. Osteoclasts are inhibited by -

1. Parathyroid hormone.
2. Calcitonin.
3. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol.
4. Tumor percrosis factor.

46. The protective effects of breast milk are known to be associated with -

1. IgM antibodies.
2. Lysozyme.
3. Mast cells.
4. IgA antibodies.

47. A simple bacteria test for mutagenic carcinogens is -

1. Ames test.
2. Redox test.
3. Bacteriophage.
4. Gene splicing.

48. Both Vitamin K and C are involved in -

1. The synthesis of clotting factors.
2. Post translation modifications.
3. Antioxidant mechanisms
4. The microsomal hydroxylation.

49. Enzymes that moves a molecular group from one molecule to another are known as -

1. Ligases.
2. Oxido – reductases.
3. Transferases.
4. Dipeptidases.
50. The membrane protein, clathrin is involved in -

1. Cell motility.
2. Receptor-mediated endocytosis.
3. Exocytosis.
4. Cell shape.

AIPGE 2005 Dental 4

2010-08-13T23:21:00.001-07:00

31. Mouth guards to prevent accidents to teeth are most practical for -

1. All children.
2. All persons engaged in contact sports.
3. Automobile passengers.
4. Persons on organized athletic team.

32. The arch length preservation can be best carried out by -

1. Placing a lingual arch.
2. Restoring carious teeth.
3. Placing band and loop space maintainer.
4. Placing an acrylic removable space maintainer.

33. The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are -

1. Gram positive organisms.
2. Gram negative organisms.
3. Mycoplasma.
4. Virus infections.

34. Which one of the following drugs has been shown to offer protection from gastric aspiration syndrome in a patient with symptoms of
reflux?

1. Ondansetron.
2. Metoclopramide.
3. Sodium citrate.
4. Atropine.

35. The following statements concerning chorade tympani nerve true except that it -

1. Carries secretomotor fibres to slubmandibular gland.
2. Joins lingual nerve infratemporal fossa.
3. Is a branch of facial nerve.
4. Contains postganglionic parasympathetic fibers.

36. A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical Twin. What type of graft it is ?

1. Xenograft.
2. Autograft.
3. Allograft.
4. Isograft.

37. All of the following physiological processes occur during the growth at the epiphyseal plate, except -

1. Proliferation and hypertrophy.
2. Calcification and ossification.
3. Vasculogenesia and erosion.
4. Replacement of red bone marrow with yellow marrow.

38. Virus mediated transfer of host DNA from one cell to another is known as -

1. Transduction.
2. Transformation.
3. Transcription.
4. Integration.

39. Barr body is found in the following phase of the cell cycle -

1. Interphase.
2. Metaphase.
3. Gl phase.
4. Telophase.

40. Cellular and flagellar movement is carried out by all of the following, except -

1. Intermediate filaments.
2. Actin.
3. Tublin.
4. Myosin.

AIPGE 2005 Dental 3

2010-08-13T23:20:00.000-07:00

21. In Jaundice, when there is an unconjugated hyperbilirubinemai is most likely due to -

1. Hepatitis.
2. Cirrhosis.
3. Obstruction of bile canaliculi.
4. Increased breakdown of red cells.

22. A patient with grand mal epilepsy would likely be under treatment with -

1. Meprobamte.
2. Pentobarbital.
3. Trimethadione.
4. Phenytoin.

23. Adam stokes syndrome is caused due to -

1. Atrial fibrillation.
2. Atrial extrasystole.
3. Complete AV block.
4. Ventilation fibrillation.

24. The proper rate of rescue breathing in an adult
is -

1. 4 times per minutes.
2. 12 times per minutes.
3. 20 times per minutes.
4. 28 times per minutes.

25. The rate of injection of intraveneous Valium is -

1. 1 ml / min.
2. 2.5 ml / min.
3. 1 mg / min.
4. 2.5 mg / min.

26. The term best describes a disease transmitted to man through animals –

1. Communicable.
2. Transmissible.
3. Zoonotic.
4. Vertically transmissible.

27. The blood cells responsible for humoral immunity are -

1. T – cells.
2. B – cells.
3. No cells only antibodies.
4. Mostly B – cells sometimes T – cells.

28. Which of the following is not a method of chlorination of water?

1. Perchloron.
2. Ozonation.
3. Chroline gas.
4. Chloramine.

29. Of the following minerals the highest amount found in human body is -

1. Sodium.
2. Calcium
3. Phosphorus.
4. Iron.

30. The threshold dose of fluoride that requires immediate emergency treatment and hospitalization in acute fluoride toxicity is -

1. 4 mg.
2. 5 mg.
3. 6 mg.
4. 7 mg.

AIPGE 2005 Dental 2

2010-08-13T23:19:00.001-07:00

11. Ectodermal dysplasia is -

1. Autosomal recessive.
2. Autosomal dominant.
3. X-linked dominant.
4. X-linked recessive.

12. The normal depth of the gingival crevice in an adult does not exceed -

1. 0.5 – 1 mm.
2. 1 – 2 mm.
3. 1 – 3 mm.
4. 2 – 3 mm.

13. The characteristic lesion of acute necrotizing gingivitis is the necrosis of the gingival mainly of the -

1. Interdental papilla.
2. Marginal gingiva.
3. Attached gingiva.
4. Free gingiva.

14. Cavity formation in a tooth, due to dental caves is due to -

1. Destructive potential of streptococcus mutans.
2. Destructive potential of lactobacillus acidophilus.
3. Lateral spread of cavies along DE junction and weakening of the overlying enamel.
4. Mastectomy force and unrelated to the extent of carious process.

15. Enamel hypoplasia is not a feature of –

1. Osteopetrosis.
2. Downs syndrome.
3. Some types of epidermolysis bullosa.
4. Cleidocranial.

16. Café an lait Spots are seen in -

1. Pagets disease of bone.
2. Cherubism.
3. Von Recklinghausen disease.

17. The drug of choice in management of a patient with an acute allergic reaction involving bronchospasm and hypotension is -

1. Epinephine.
2. Aminophyline.
3. Dexamethasone.
4. Diphenhydramine.

18. The agent of choice to reverse status epilepticus induced by local anesthetic overdose is -

1. Oxygen.
2. Diazepam.
3. Epinephrine.
4. Phenobarbital.

19. A person with glaucoma should not receive -

1. Sedatives.
2. Vasoconstrictors.
3. Antisialogogues.
4. Local anesthetic.

20. Prolonged administration of streptomycin may result in damage to the -

1. Optic nerve.
2. Facial nerve.
3. Auditory nerve.
4. Trigeminal nerve.

AIPGE 2005 Dental 1

2010-08-13T23:18:00.001-07:00

1. In which part of oral cavity mucous membrane is the thinnest?

1. Soft palate.
2. Labial mucosa.
3. Floor of mouth.
4. Buccal mucosa.

2. Which of the following is the normal
arrangement of lingual nerve and vessels in the tongue from medial to lateral?

1. Nerve, artery and vein.
2. Artery, nerve and vein.
3. Vein, artery and nerve.
4. Nerve, artery.

3. Palatine aponeurosis is

1. Tendon of levator veli palatine muscle.
2. Tendon of tensor veli palatine muscle.
3. A part of muscle uvulae.
4. A modification of palatal periosteum.

4. The tactile threshold of the natural teeth during
axial loading is –

1. 0.001 – 0.01 N.
2. 0.01 – 0.10 N.
3. 0.10 – 0.50 N.
4. 1 – 2 N.

5. During Bennett movement or shift of mandible -

1. Condyle of working side exhibit bodily forward movement.
2. Condyle of working side exhibit bodily lateral movement.
3. Condyle of working side exhibit bodily lateral movement.
4. Condyle of working side exhibit bodily lateral and forward movement.

6. Amide – type local anesthetics are metabolized
in the -

1. Serum.
2. Liver.
3. Spleen.
4. Kidneys.

7. Reduced salivary flow following irradiation is dose dependent. At what dose does the flow reach essentially zero?

1. 4000 rads.
2. 5000 rads.
3. 6000 rads.
4. 7000 rads.

8. The cell component that is genetically continuous from one cell generation to the next to -

1. Nuclear membrane.
2. Golgi complex.
3. Central bodies.
4. Chromatin.

9. Golgi bodies are responsible for -

1. Synthesis of polypeptides.
2. Formation of glycoproteins only.
3. Modification and sorting of glycoproteins.
4. Lipid and steroid synthesis.

10. Deficiency of all the three components of coagulation factor VIII result in -

1. Von willebrand’s disease.
2. Haemophilia – A.
3. Parahaemophilia.
4. Haemophilia – B.

AIIMS 2008 Nov MDS

2009-12-05T01:30:00.001-08:00

45. radiographic feature in gingivitis- normal bone
46. 8mm pocket- pseudo pocket
47. root # in the apical third of permanent teeth usually ------- vital n functional
48. trauma from occlusion least likely to affect------- epithelial attachment
49. adenoid odontogenic tumor called as-------- adenoameloblastoma
50. radicular cyst always asso. with.---------- non vital tooth
51. abrasion most common on--------------- maxillary arch left side
52. nitrous oxide nt used alone in GA------------- difficulty to maintain adequate O2 con.
53. floating tooth----cherubism
54. loading dose dependant on---vol of distribution
55. mode
56. koch's postulate
57. modification of koch's postulate
58. difference between etchant and gel
59. bone grafting done before canine extraction or after in cleft case
60. use of paired t test or unpaired in two groups
61. a tooth in which rct was started 2 yrs back , radiolucency does not resolve reason , curretage done
62. periapical radoioopacities around molar
63. patient on steriod therapy , whay would u give
64. in # mand part behind # line acts as
65. material which has high tensile strength but low compressive strength called
66. a girl using teething gel _ acrodynia?
67. mixture of 2.5% + 2.5% used in
68. gasserian block
69. mand block
70. eutectic mixture used in anesthesia of intact skin
71. injury which does not extend to dermis.... contusion
72. bilat. canine area fracture in md. is pushed backwards by action of muscles, ant belly digastric genioglossus geniohyoid
73. nt effective against MRSA clotrimaxazole
74. in penicillin allergic pt penicillin nd erythromycin nt given together why, erythromycin reduce d action of penicillin

75. tt. 4 a pt having badly carious left LI wid inability of opening left eye ,fluctuant swelling on
76. left side of face, fever.... incision and drainage
77. sorting of pt.of trauma on basis of need of care nd availability of resources....triage
78. prevention of long term widrawl effects of morphine
79. gingivoplasty nt req in all except ........ acute necrotising ulcerative gingivitis
80. organism absent in pdl diseases?????
81. semipermeable sulcular epi. leads 2 .... both of the above
82. multiple radiolucencies in 30 yr old lady due 2..?
83. GA cause rapid recovery wid max consciousness.?
84. muscle not originated from oblique line of thyroid....sup constrictor
85. t lymphocytes primarily do...produce lymphokine and .....
86. T2N0M0 signify stage 2 .

AIIMS 2008 NOV MDS

2009-12-05T01:22:00.000-08:00

1. radioluceny at the apex of a vital tooth
2. radio opacity periapical
3. dentin conditioners
4. acid etch causes
5. 8 year old child with green stains
6. shape of access opening of mand moar with 4 canals
7. not a periodontal pathogen
8. most common developmental maxillary cyst
9. which is benzodiazepne antagonist
10. fluride from GIC reacts wid?
11. bleeding patient in emergency,
12. tongue control lost, maanagement?
13. mandibular fracture tension/ compression / rotation/ torsion?
14. DIFOTI use
15. gel used for etching not liquid y?
16. irregulr dentin ,interglobular dentin
17. etchant protected 4m entering pulp
18. radiopacity below3 month old amalgam restr.
19. .semipermeable sulcular epi. leads 2
20. multiple radiolucencies in 30 yr old lady due 2
21. floating teeth seen in
22. etching leads 2 reduction in
23. eutectic mixture used in
24. postoperative effect is minimum wid
25. oral pigmentation seen in
26. gingivoplasty nt req in all except
27. plaque contains
28. bilat. canine area fracture in md. is pushed backwards by action of muscles
29. nt effective against MRSA
30. in penicillin allergic pt penicillin nd erythromycin nt given together why
31. tt. 4 a pt having badly carious left LI wid inability of opening left eye ,fluctuant swelling on left side of face, fever
32. sorting of pt.of trauma on basis of need of care nd availability of resources
33. prevention of long term widrawl effects of morphine is prevented by
34. which GA cause rapid recovery wid max consciousness
35. muscle not originated from oblique line of thyroid
36. t lymphocytes primarily do
37. T2N0M0 signify stage 2
38. plaque contain-bacteria & food products,
39. infectious mononucleosis- ebv
40. suger found-sucrose
41. oral pigmentation-addison disease
42. avulsed tooth-wash with saline
43. painful socket- irrigation & medicated gauge
44. hair on end appearance-thallesemia

AIPGE 09 MDS Prosthodontics

2009-12-02T13:13:00.001-08:00

Prosthodontics

208. Methods to reduce backpressure porosity
a) Vacuum investing
b) Increasing length of sprue
c) …
d) …
Ans:

AIPGE 09 MDS Oral & Maxillofacial Surgery

2009-12-02T13:11:00.000-08:00

Oral & Maxillofacial Surgery

187. Lingual splaying will cause increase in
a) Interpupillary distance
b) Intercanthal distance
c) Interangle distance
d) Go – Gn distance

188. A condylar fracture with fragment overlap of >5mm and angle >37 degree needs what treatment?
a) Closed reduction and imf
b) ORIF
c) Soft diet only
d) No treatment
Ans:

189. When a mandibular fracture is transferred to an intensive care unit,under what is mandibular fracture treated
a) Primary survey
b) Secondary survey
c) Primary survey with IMF
d) Resuscitation room

190. When a minimal injury as a glancing blow is struck,to what variable is it related?
a) Position of strike
b) Area of strike
c) Angulation of strike
d) Location of strike
Ans:

191. According to the tension and compression forces acting at the condylar border which of these would best attenuate them?
a) A plate at the anterior border and another at the posterior border
b) A plate at the anterior border
c) A plate at the posterior border
d) A plate at the lateral border
Ans:

192. Treatment of comminuted fracture in angle of mandible
a) Multiple miniplates
b) Compression plates
c) Recontruction plates
d) Single miniplate which gives functional union
Ans: Reconstruction plates

193. Bone which fills in an osseous defect is
a) Spongy
b) Cancellous
c) Bundle
d) None
Ans:

194. What is the best treatment for a fractured angle mandible?
a )two plates as acc to AO principles
b)compression plating
c )reconstruction plates
d)
Ans:

195. The failure of IAN block can occur in children due to
a) Concentration of LA
b) Presence of adrenaline
c) Position of needle
d) Angle of ramus
Ans: d) Angle of ramus

196. Which of the following is not done as a investigation in osteosarcoma
a) MRI femur
b) Bone marrow biopsy
c) Bone scan
d) Xray chest
Ans:

197. Alveolar bone grafting in a cleft palate patient is done
a) After maxillary expansion, cross bite correction, before canine eruption
b) Before maxillary expansion cross bite correction after canine eruption
c) After maxillary expansion cross bite correction after canine eruption
d) Before maxillary expansion cross bite correction before canine eruption
Ans: a)After maxillary expansion, cross bite correction, before canine eruption

198. A pt is admitted with head injury, GCS = 8, maxillary fracture, frequent apnea and low oxygenation. Airway management is done by
a) Oropharyngeal airway
b) Orotracheal airway
c) Cricothyroidotomy
d) …
Ans: c) Cricothyroidotomy

199. Excisional biopsy is done by
a) Complete excision of the tumor along with some part of normal tissue
b) Partial excision of the tumor alone
c) Partial excision of the tumor with normal tissue
d) Complete excision of the tumor
Ans: a) Complete excision of the tumor along with some part of normal tissue

200. The bone present on the labial side of lower anteriors is
a) Cortical
b) Cancellous
c) Fibrous
d) Spongy
Ans: a) Cortical

201. The type of bone present between the furcations is
a)cortical
b)cancellous
c)fibrous
d)spongy
Ans: b) Cancellous

202. Champy plates
a) …
b) …
c) …
d) …
Ans:

203. Commonest impaction
a) Mesioangular
b) Distoangular
c) Vertical
d) Horizontal
Ans: Mesioangular

204. Which anesthetic is used intravenously
a) Propofol
b) …
c) …
d) …
Ans:

205. LA does not act in the presence of inflammation as LA solution molecules
a) Are positively charged
b) Are negatively charged
c) Not charged
d) …
Ans:

206. In mass trauma cases treatment priority given to
a) Those with life threatening conditions
b) Those who can be revived with minimum of resources and manpower
c) Those requiring maximum machinery and manpower
d) ….
Ans: b) Those who can be revived with minimum of resources and manpower

207. A patient is suffering from severe facial pain and a nasopharengeal tumor is present on the lateral wall of larynx.The patient is suffering from
a) Plummervinson syndrome
b) Trotters syndrome :ans
c) Reiters syndrome
d) …
Ans:

AIPGE 09 MDS Radiology

2009-12-02T13:10:00.001-08:00

Radiology

177. When a child is not able 2 hold the IOPA film,who should hold it?
a) Dentist
b) Parent
c) Assisstant
d) Radiographer
Ans: b) Parent

178. Bisecting angle technique uses
a) Rule of Isometry
b) ALARA
c) SLOB
d) …
Ans: a) Rule of Isometry

179. Trapnell lines and McG.... lines are used in
a) True lateral
b) PA mandible
c) PNS view
d) …
Ans:

180. In a radiograph, the buccal root of max 1st premolar appears to be distal to the lingual root.The angulation of the cone was
a) Mesial to the premolar
b) Distal to the premolar
c) 10 degrees from above in a vertical angulation
d) 10 degrees from below in a vertical angulation
Ans: a) Mesial to the premolar

181.On the radiograph,the mesial aspect of a mandibular 1st molar, 2-3 mm bone loss is found.On probing, 6mm pocket is present.The difference is due to
a) Wrong angulation of radiograph
b) Facial and lingual bone superimposition
c) Mesial and buccal bone superimposition
d) Mesial and lingual bone superimposition
Ans:

182.On a radiograph, irregularities are found on the root area of lower incisors.It may be
a) Subgingival calculus
b) Root caries
c) …
d) …
Ans: a)Subgingival calculus

183. Best for detecting posterior proximal caries in children with minimum radiatn exposure is
a) bitewing with paralleling technique
b) bitewing with bisecting angle technique
c) bitewing with rvg
d) …
Ans:

184. Which of the following is identified only by radiographs?
a) Mental foramen
b) Apical cyst
c) PA granuloma
d) Chronic periodontitis
Ans: a) Mental foramen

185. Radiopacity at apex of a carious molar
a) Periapical granuloma
b) Condensing osteitis
c) Periapical cyst
d) …
Ans: Condensing osteitis

186. Radiographic appearance of periapical abscess in a primary molar as radiolucency
a) In the inter radicular area
b) Periapical area
c) Lateral to root
d) …
Ans: a) In the interradicular area

AIPGE 09 MDS Conservative Dentistry

2009-12-02T13:09:00.000-08:00

Conservative Dentistry

150.Difference in tooth preparion for non carious Class V amalgam and composites
a) Depth of the cavity
b) Mesial and distal walls of the cavity
c) Placement of retentive grooves
d) Cavosurface margins
Ans: d) Cavosurface margins

151. To increase the efficiency of tungsten carbide bur
a) Should run only after touching the tooth
b) Run at high speed before touching the tooth
c) Run at low speed before touching the tooth
d) Run before entering the oral cavity
Ans: c) Run at low speed before touching the tooth

152. A mand.molar is restored with a gold inlay. Severe shooting pain is experienced when teeth come in contact. The cause is
a) Supraocclusion
b) Allergic reaction
c) Excess cement
d) Galvanism due to opposite amalgam restoration
Ans: d)Galvanism due to opposite amalgam restoration

153. Most imp bevel for gold inlay restoration is
a) Occlusal
b) Gingival
c) Axiopuplal
d) Axiofacial
Ans:

154. When pins are used in amalgam, strength of amalgam
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Same
d) ….
Ans: b)Decreases

155. Action of primer
a) Removal of smear layer
b) Increases surface free energy of dentin
c) Forms thin layer between collagen and resin
d) Bonds with composite
Ans:

156. Which is a wrong technique of placement of rubberdam
a) Place the clamp on tooth and insert the rubber dam
b) Place the dam over the clamp and then on tooth
c) Place the dam over the clamp and frame outside the oral cavity and then on tooth using a holder under the dam
d) Put holder over the dam
Ans:

157. Which is most difficult to diagnose
a) Necrosed pulp
b) Internal resorption
c) Chronic pulpitis
d) Acute apical abscess
Ans:

158. tev dek sutures used in endodontic microsurgery are removed in
a) 24-72 hrs
b) 72-96 hrs
c) 7 days
d)10 days
Ans:

159. Irreversible colonization of bacteria occurs in hw much time after enamel is exposed to bacteria?
a) 24 hrs
b) 1-2 hrs
c) 3-4 hrs
d) Immediately
Ans:

160. What lines become prominent after carious process?
a) Hunter schreger bands
b) Incremental lines of retzius
c) Incremental lines of pickerill
d) Incremental lines of von ebner
Ans: Incremental lines of retzius

161. Which is the best material for treatment of non-carious Class V cavities in unstable acid erosion cases?
a) GIC
b) RM-GIC
c) Compomer
d) Composite
Ans: d) Composite

162. Polymerization shrinkage of composite causes compression stress of
a) 1 mpa
b) 15 mpa
c) 5 mpa
d) 30 mpa
Ans:

163. In a tooth with gingival recession undergoing RCT, the gp cone is sealed at
a) Level of anatomic crown junction
b) 1 mm below gingival crest
c) 1mm below the opening of the canal
d) 1mm above the opening of the canal
Ans:

164. While applying temporary restoration to a tooth during a procedure, the thickness of temporary should be
a) 1mm
b) 2mm
c) 3mm
d) 4mm
Ans:

165. During application of rubber dam, following can be used as a lubricant except
a) Vaseline
b) Soapy water
c) Shaving cream
d) …
Ans: a) Vaselin

166. Root surface caries is caused by
a) Lactobacillus
b) Streptococcus viridans
c) Actinimyces
d) Streptococcus mutans
Ans: c) Actinomyces

167. Root surface caries is caused by(repeated)
a) Lactobacillus
b) Streptococcus viridans
c) Actinimyces
d) Streptococcus mutans
Ans: c) Actinomyces

168. On preparing the root canal with a protaper F2 file, 1mm of the GP cone is cut so as to fit the canal with friction.The diameter of the apical preparation is
a) 0.29mm
b) 0.30mm
c) 0.31mm
d) 0.33mm
Ans:

169. Before restoring a tooth with composite, the area is etched. Accidental contamination occurs with saliva.Then
a) The area is reetched before restoration
b) The area is air dried using an air spray and continue with restoring
c) Wipe the saliva with cotton and continue to restore
d) The area washed with waterspray airdried and reetched
Ans: d)The area washed with waterspray airdried and retched

170. Restorative material of choice for classV abfraction in anterior tooth
a) Microfilled composite
b) GIC
c) RMGIC
d) Compomer
Ans: a) Microfilled composite

171. Proximal caries in a tooth starts
a) Above the contact point
b) Gingival to the contact point and gingiva
c) Gingival to the contact point and occusal to the gingival crest
d) At the contact point
Ans: c) Gingival to the contact point and occusal to the gingival crest

172. On radiographic examination of a deep carious tooth,pulp appears to be nearly exposed.what would be the line of treatment
a)consider the tooth to be exposed and carry out RCT
b)place a sedative dressing and restore with amalgam
c)place a sedative dressing and plan for a pulpotomy procedure in the next appointment
d) ….
Ans: c)place a sedative dressing and plan for a pulpotomy procedure in the next appointment

173. The thickness of kalzynol when its used as a temporary restoration in a rootcanal treated tooth
a) 1mm
b) 2mm
c) 3mm
d) 4mm
Ans:

174. In the slide preparation of a normal tooth,the radiolucent area occupied by
a) Normal pulp
b) Internal resorption
c) Inflammed pulp
d) Necrosed pulp
Ans: a) Normal pulp

175. Application frequency of APF in a caries prone child
a) Twice a year
b) Four times a year
c) Once a year
d) …
Ans: a) Twice a year

176. A porcelain inlay with a facial wall is to be prepared.The cavity walls
a) Should converge facially
b) The depth of the cavity is increased more than that for an amalgam restoration
c) The walls are placed parallel to each other
d) …
Ans:

AIPGE 09 MDS General Surgery

2009-12-02T13:07:00.001-08:00

General Surgery

139. A Patient with trauma suffers 15 % blood loss.
a) No treatment
b) Blood and colloidal transfusion
c) Colloidal transfusion only
d) Blood transfusion only
Ans: No treatment

140. In a deep wound, width is more than depth. It is
a) Stab wound
b) Slash
c) Laceration
d) Contaminated
Ans: b) Slash

141. Reactive arthritis is caused by
a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) H influenza
c) N. gonorrhoea
d) E coli
Ans:

142. Acute infection causes
a) Neutropenia
b) Leucopenia
c) Leucocytosis
d) …
Ans:

143. DLC is used for assessment of
a) Eosinophilia
b) Anemia
c) Leukocytosis
d) Leucopenia
Ans: a) Eosinophilia

144. Head ache of vascular origin are all except
a) Giant cell arteritis
b) Anesthesia dolorosa
c) Cluster head ache
d) Hemicrania

145. SABE of dental origin is caused by
a) Streptococcus viridans
b) Actinomyces
c) Streptococcus mutans
d) Streptococcus salivarius
Ans: a) Streptococcus viridans

146. A 9yr old child presents with generalized ulceration, fever, malaise, ulcers around the mouth.Treatment is
a) Symptomatic treatment and observation
b) Prescribe broad spectrum penicillin and mouthwash
c) Clean the mouth with a gentle mouthwash
d) …
Ans: a) Symptomatic treatment and observation

147. Which of the following increases turbulence in blood flow?
a) Reynolds number less than 2000
b) When velocity is decreased
c) When density of blood decreases
d) When diameter of blood vessel increases
Ans:

148.Facial nerve damage associated with
a) Transverse fracture of petrous temporal
b) Longitudinal fracture of petrous temporal
c) associated with csf otorhea
d) …
Ans: a) Transverse fracture of petrous temporal

149. Most common cause of pulmonary embolism
a) Lymphangitis
b) Endarteritis
c) Thrombophlebitis
d) …
Ans: c) Thrombophlebitis

AIPGE 09 MDS Periodontics

2009-12-02T13:06:00.001-08:00

Periodontics

115.Attached gingiva
a) Always stippled
b) Resistant to masticatory stress and forces
c) Highly prone to infection
d) …..
Ans: b) Resistant to masticatory stress and forces

116.Dental floss is used for cleaning which type of embrasures
a) Type 1
b) Type 2
c) Type 3
d) All
Ans: a) Type 1

117. Gingival fibers which run between two teeth are
a) Transeptal fibers
b) Trans gingival
c) Oblique
d) Apical
Ans: a) Transeptal fibers

118. Which condition can be diagnosed only with radiograph
a) Periodontal abscess
b) Bifurcation involvement
c) Anatomical length of tooth
d) Periapical granuloma
Ans: c) Anatomical length of tooth

119. Periapical and periodontal abscess can be differentiated by
a) Probing
b) Radiograph
c) Histopathology
d) …
Ans:

120. Radiograph helps in the identification of
a) Depth of bone loss
b) Shape of the bony defect
c) Extent of bone loss
d) None
Ans:

121. Irreversible colonization of bacteria occurs in how much time after enamel is exposed to bacteria?
a) 24 hrs
b) 1-2 hrs
c) 3-4 hrs
d) Immediately
Ans: b) 1-2 hrs

122. Gingivosis is related most commonly to
a ) High progesterone
b) Low estrogen and testosterone
c) Pregnancy
d) …
Ans:

123.Periodontometer is used for
a) Tooth mobility
b) Periodontal pocket
c) GCF
d) Halitosis
Ans: a)Tooth mobility

124. What change occurs with time in supragingival plaque
a) Increase plaque mass
b) Becomes more G+ve
c) Becomes more G-ve
d) More spirochetal
Ans: b) Becomes more G-ve

125. First clinical sign of TFO
a) Tooth mobility
b) Wear facets
c) Bone loss
d) ……
Ans:a) tooth mobility

126. Green stains on tooth is caused by
a) Chromogenic bacteria
b) Lysis of neutrophils
c) Materia alba
d) ….
Ans: a) Chromogenic bacteria

127. In chronic marginal gingivitis, radiographic changes are
a) Horizontal bone loss
b) Vertical bone loss
c) Angular bone loss
d) None
Ans: d) None

128. Colour of subgingival calculus due to
a) Change in ph
b) RBC hemolysis
c) Leukocyte destruction
d) All of the above
Ans: b) RBC hemolysis

129. To measure periodontitis in a large population, what is used
a) Gingival index
b) Periodontal index
c) Plaque index
d) …
Ans:

130. Smoking is a predisposing factor to
a) ANUG
b) Juvenile periodontitis
c) Lichen planus
d) Hepatitis
Ans: ANUG

131. Juvenile periodontitis is due to
a) Decreased phagocytosis
b) Defect in neutrophil chemotaxic activity
c) …
d) …
Ans: b) Defect in neutrophil chemotaxic activity

132. Interdental col is susceptible to periodontal diseases due to
a) Non keratinized epithelium
b) It is difficult to clean
c) Highly prone to plaque accumulation
d) All the above
Ans: d) All of the above

133. true abt primary teeth
a)all calcify before birth
b)all primary n perm. incisors calcify before birth

134. Delayed hypersensitivity is found in periodontal infections due to
a) Sensitized T-lymphocyte to bacterial plaque
b) B lymphocyte
c) Immunoglobulins….
d) Immunecomplexes…..
Ans: a)Sensitized T-lymphocyte to bacterial plaque

135. Delayed hypersensitivity is found in periodontal infections due to [Repeat]
a) Sensitized T-lymphocyte to bacterial plaque
b) B lymphocyte
c) Immunoglobulins…..
d) All of the above
Ans: a)Sensitized T-lymphocyte to bacterial plaque

136.The difference between supragingival and subgingival calculus is the composition of supragingival calculus
a)
b) Plaque bacterial mass
c) Gm – ve organisms predominant
d) …
Ans: a) Varies with the intake of diet

137. A tooth has apical migration of epithelial attachment.Along with it gingival recession occurs.The tooth has
a) Shallow sulcus
b) Periodontal pocket
c) Gingival pocket
d) …
Ans:

138. Organism not seen in periodontal disease
a) Velionella
b) Fusobacterium
c) Neisseria
d) Spirochaets
Ans: c) Neisseria

AIPGE 09 MDS General medicine

2009-12-02T13:04:00.000-08:00

General medicine

106. Cells that are not found in lungs
a) Brush
b) Clara
c) Kulchisky
d) Langerhan
Ans: d) Langerhan

107. Radiographic feature of sinusitis includes:
a) Fluid level
b) Erosion of bone
c) Clouding of antra
d) Fluid level and clouding
Ans: d) Fluid level and clouding

108.In autism,
a) Incapacitance of motor and mental coordination
b) Mental retardation
c) Lack of motor skills
Ans: a) Incapacitance of motor and mental coordination

109. Which is seen in acromegaly
a) Large tongue
b) Hypoglycemia
c) Crowding of tooth
d) ……
Ans:a) Large tongue

110. One yr old child is suffering from asthma.Treatment is
a) Short acting beta 2 agonist
b) Inhalational steroid
c) Sustained slow release theophylline
d)
Ans:

111.Cats eye syndrome
a) Partial trisomy 21
b) Partial trisomy 22
c) Partial trisomy 13
d) Partial trisomy 18

112. Phlegmon is
a) Type of cellulites
b) STD
c) …
d) …
Ans: a) Type of cellulites

113. True about polio
a) Paralytic polio is most common
b) Spastic paralysis
c) Increased muscular activity leads to increased paralysis
d) Pulse polio immunization given <3 years using inactivated polio virus
Ans:

114. Benedict syndrome
a) …
b) …
c) …
d) …
Ans:

AIPGE 09 MDS Oral pathology

2009-12-02T13:03:00.001-08:00

Oral pathology

69.Commonest site of keratoacanthoma
a) Lip
b) Palate
c) Buccal mucosa
d) Tongue
Ans: a) Lip

70. Moth eaten app is seen in all except
a) Osteomyelitis
b) Haemorrhagic cyst
c) OKC
d) Osteosarcoma
Ans okc

71. Ehler danlos syndrome is
a) Autosomal dominant,
b) Autosomalecessive
c) X linked dominant
d) X linked recessive
Ans a) Autosomal dominant,

72. Nasoalveolar cyst is also known as
a) Kledstadt cyst
b) Bohns nodules
c) Epstein pearls
Ans: a)Kledstadt cyst

73. Most common tumor of parotid gland
a) Pleomorphic adenoma
b) Warthins tumor
c) Adenoidcystic carcinoma
Ans: a) Pleomorphic adenoma

74. White radiating lines on the buccal mucosa are seen in
a) Lichen planus
b) Leucoplakia
c) WSN
d) Leukedema
Ans: a)Lichen planus

75.Chronic burrowing ulcer of skin is caused by
a) Microaerophillus streptococcus
b) Streptococcus pyogenes
c) Peptostreptococcus
d) Streptococcus Viridans
Ans: a) Microaerophillus streptococcus

76. Dentinogenesis imperfecta is a
a) Autosomal dominant
b) Autosomal recessive
c) X linked dominant
d) X linked recessive
Ans: a)autosomal dominant

77. The disorder characterised by craniosynostosis and preaxial polysyndactyly of feet. soft tissue syndactyly is also present.
a) Carpenter syndrome
b) Crouzon syndrome
c) Apert syndrome
Ans: a) Carpenter syndrome

78. In Millard Gubler syndrome all are involved except:
a) 5th cranial nerve
b) 6th cranial nerve
c) 7th cranial nerve
d) Contralateral hemiplegia
Ans:

79. An infant with cleft lip, cleft palate, polydactly, microcephaly with holoprosencephaly, ectodermal scalp defect is suffering from:
a) Trisomy 21
b) Trisomy 18
c) Trisomy 13
d) Turner syndrome
Ans: c) Trisomy 13

80. Staghorn pattern seen in
a) Hemangiopericytoma
b) …
c) …
d) …
Ans: a) Hemangiopericytoma

81. A patient is suffering from severe facial pain and a nasopharyngeal tumor is present on the lateral wall of larynx. The patient is suffering from
a) Plummervinson syndrome
b)Trotters syndrome
c) Reiters syndrome
Ans: b) Trotters syndrome

82. Rushton bodies are seen in
a) Periapical cyst
b) Periapical granuloma
c) Dentigerous cyst
Ans: a) Periapical cyst

83. Most common site of occurrence of sialolith is in
a) Parotid gland
b) Sublingual gland
c) Submandibular gland
Ans: c) Submandibular gland

84. A mid aged female patient has eyes widely placed, sparse hair, increased systolic BP, increased pulse pressure, weight loss and nervousness. She may be suffering from
a) Hyperthyroidism
b) Hypothyroidism
c) Hyperparathyroidism
d) Hypopituitarism
Ans a) Hyperthyroidism

85. Mosaic pattern of bone is seen in
a) Fibrous dysplasia
b) Osteitis deformans
c) Osteomyelitis
d) Ewings sarcoma
Ans: b) Osteitis deformans

86. Ground glass appearance of bone in a radiograph is seen in
a) Hyperparathyroidism,
b) Hyperthyroidism
c) Hypothyroidism
d)Hypoparathyroidism
Ans: a)Hyperparathyroidism

87. An 8yr old boy comes to your clinic with a chief complaint of large and jagged front teeth.Treatment would be
a) Trim the teeth and apply fluoride varnish to prevent sensitivity
b) Build the other teeth to the same size
c) Extract the teeth
d) Reassure the child and send him home.
Ans: d) Reassure the child and send him home

88. A bluish purple swelling is present behind a lower primary second molar in a 6yr old child.Treatment is
a) No treatment.only observation
b) Injecting proteolytic solution in the area
c) Surgical excision of the flap
Ans: a)No treatment.only observation

89. In a patient with cerebral palsy, all are seen except
a) Increased dental caries
b) Fluorosis
c) Increased salivation
d) Trauma
Ans: b) Fluorosis

90. Excess ingestion of fluorides is absorbed by the intestines. It is excreted by
a) Kidney
b) Lung
c) Liver
d) Saliva
Ans: a) Kidney

91. Rhabdomyosarcoma is a disorder of
a) Smooth muscle
b) Striated muscle
c) Cardiac muscle
d) Epithelium
Ans: b) Striated muscle

92. Apatient with severely discolored teeth, fractured enamel, undefined DEJ, severe attrition has
a) Severe flourosis
b) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
c) Amelogenesis imperfecta
d) Dentin dysplasia
Ans: b) Dentinogenesis imperfecta

93. Most common malignancy in AIDS
a) Kaposis
b) Hodgkins lymphoma
c) SCC
d) Non hodgkins lymphoma

94. Radiographic feature of sinusitis includes:
a) Fluid level
b) Erosion of bone
c) Clouding of antra
d) Fluid level and clouding
Ans: d) Fluid level and clouding

95.Saw tooth rete pegs seen in
a) Lichen planus
b) Leukoplakia
c) Leukedma
d) WSN
Ans: a) Lichen planus

96. The difference in epithelial lining of cyst and oral cavity
a) Stratum germinatum
b) Stratum corneum
c) Stratum spinosum
d) Stratum incidium
Ans: a) Stratum germinatum

97. Neonatal teeth are seen
a) Erupt within 30days of birth
b) At birth
c) Erupt in 6months
d) …
Ans: a) Erupt within 30 days of birth

98. Geniculate neuralgia associated with
a) Facial nerve
b) Trigeminal nerve
c)glossopharyngeal nerve
d) Vagus nerve
Ans: a)Facial nerve

99.Moth eaten appearance is seen in all except
a) Osteomyelitis
b) Haemorrhagic cyst
c) OKC
d) Osteosarcoma
Ans:

100. Movement of jaw with opening of eyes occur in
a) Jaw winking syndrome
b) …
c) …
d) …
Ans: a) Jaw winking syndrome

101. A periapical granuloma and periapical abscess can be differenciated by
a) Radiograph
b) Vitality
c) Clinically
d) Histopathologically
Ans: d) Histopathologically

102. Juvenile periodontitis caused by
a) Gram negative aerobes
b) Gram negative anaerobes
c) Facultative anaerobes
d) Aerobes
Ans: b)Gram negative anaerobes

103. Monocytosis
a) Hodgkins disease
b) Multiple myloma
c) …
d) …
Ans:

1044. Hypoplasia of permanent tooth caused by local injury to primary tooth
a) Turners hypoplasia
b) …
c) …
d) …
Ans:

105. True among following
a) All primary teeth calcify before birth
b) All primary and permanent molars calcify before birth
c) All primary and permanent incisors and molars calcify before birth
d) All primary and permanent canines calcify before birth
Ans: a)All primary teeth calcify before birth

AIPGE 09 MDS Community dentistry

2009-12-02T13:01:00.000-08:00

Community dentistry

58. In national water supply and sanitation programme a “problem village” is defined as all except
a) Distance of safe water is within 1.5 kms
b) Watertable below….kms
c) Water source has excess iron and heavy metals
d) Water infested with guinea worm
Ans: d) Distance of safe water within 1.5 Kms

59. A sampling unit refers to
a) Group of sample
b) Subset of sample
c) Every individual of a sample
d) All
Ans: c) Every individual of a sample

60. In a set of observations the relative variability
a) Coefficient of variance
b) Standard deviation
c) Standard error
d) …
Ans: a) Coefficient of variance

61. Which of the following is an example of disability limitation?
a) Reducing occurrence of polio by immunization
b) Arranging for schooling of child suffering from PRPP
c) Resting affected limbs in neutral position
d) Providing calipers for walking
Ans: c) Resting affected limbs in neutral position

62. Which of these represent a normal distribution?
a) When all data is distributed equally in a whole group
b) When mode, median and mean coincide
c) When positives are two times the negatives
d) When positives are four times the negatives
Ans: b) When mode, median and mean coincide

63. Specificity of a screening test measures
a) True positives
b) False positives
c) False negatives
d) True negatives
Ans: True negatives

64. In a study in UK, an association was found between increased sale of antiasthmatic drug and an increase in deaths due to asthma. This is an example of
a) Ecological study
b) Cohort study
c) Case reference study
d) Experimental study
Ans: a) Ecological study

65. Occupational cancer involve following organs except:
a) Lung
b) Breast
c) Bladder
d) Liver
Ans: b) Breast

66. A periodontal index is used to check the status of periodontal disease in a survey. Each tooth surface is divided into 9 parts in the index. It is
a) Navy plaque index
b) Glass index
c) Stillness and loe index
d) PHP index
Ans: a) Navy plaque index

67. Most common cause of female mortality in India during childbirth
a) Hemorrhage
b) Abortion
c) Anemia
d) Sepsis
Ans: a) Hemorrhage

68. Adjuvant used in DPT vaccine is
a) Zinc
b) Aluminum
c) Copper
d) Magnesium
Ans: b) Aluminum

AIPGE 09 MDS Microbiology

2009-12-02T13:00:00.000-08:00

48. True about mycobacterium other than tuberculosis (MOTT)
a) Causes disseminated infection
b) Occurs in persons with normal immunity
c) Causes decreased efficacy of BCG due to cross immunity
d) Person to person trAnsmission is seen
Ans:

49. Life cycle of filaria is
a) Cyclodevelopmental
b) Cyclopropagative
c) Propagative
d) Tran ovarian
Ans: a) Cyclodevelopmental

50. Herpangina is caused by
a) Coxsackie virus
b) HSV
c) HBV
d) EBV
Ans: a)Coxsackie virus

51. TRUE among the following:
a) Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is used by inhalation of rodent urine and feces
b) Kyanasur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal
c) Lyssa virus is trAnsmitted by ticks
d) ……
Ans: a) Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is used by inhalation of rodent urine and feces

Dental materials

52. Purpose of indium in amalgam
a) Eliminate gamma phase
b) Eliminate gamma-2 phase
c) Decrease Hg release on mastication
d) Decrease Hg release on abrasion
Ans

53. Bonding of GIC to tooth structure is brought about by
a) Metal ions
b) Hydroxyl bond
c) Carboxyl bond
Ans

54: Order of setting of GIC is
a) Gelation, migration, post setting contraction
b) …
c) …
d) …
Ans:

55. Action of primer
a) Removal of smear layer
b) Increases surface free energy of dentin
c) Forms thin layer between collagen and resin
d) Bonds with composite
Ans:

56. Polymerization shrinkage of composite causes compression stress of
a) 1 mpa
b) 15mpa
c) 5 mpa
d) 30 mpa
Ans:

57. To increase the efficiency of tungsten Carbide bur
a) Should run only after touching the tooth
b) Run at high speed before touching the tooth
c) Run at low speed before touching the tooth
d) Run before entering the oral cavity
Ans: c) Run at low speed before touching the tooth

AIPGE 09 MDS Physiology

2009-12-02T12:59:00.001-08:00

Physiology

38. In an obese person, BMI is
a) >10
b) >20
c) >30
d) >40
Ans: c) >30

39. Which of the following increases turbulence in blood flow?
a) Reynolds number less than 2000
b) When velocity is decreased
c) When density of blood decreases
d) When diameter of blood vessel increases
Ans:

40. Pulmonary circulation differs from systemic circulation
a) Pulmonary vasodilatation in hypoxia
b) Pulmonary vasoconstriction in hypoxia
c) Decreased blood volume during systole
d) Increased basal vasoconstrictor tone
Ans: b) Pulmonary vasoconstriction in hypoxia

41. Plasmocytoma of B cell origin is
a) Hodgkin’s lymphoma
b) Plasmocytoma
c) Multiple Myeloma
d) Non hodgkins lymphoma
Ans: c) Multiple myeloma

42. Increase in threshold level on applying sub threshold, slowly rising stimulus is known as
a) Adaptation
b) Accommodation
c) Refractoriness
d) Electrotronus
Ans: Accomodation

43. Which deficiency affects tooth development?
a) Vit. A
b) Carbohydrates
c) Vit. E
d) Vit B
Ans: Vit A

44: In compression osteosynthesis bone heals by
a) Primary union
b) Secondary union
c) Tertiary union
Ans: a) Primary union

45. A paradoxical movement of chest during inspiration and expiration in a patient who has suffered trauma
a) Frail chest
b) Cardiac tamponade
c) Dyspnoea
d) Pneumothorax
Ans:

46. When a minimal injury as a glancing blow is struck, to what variable is it related?
a) Position of strike
b) Area of strike
c) Angulations of strike
d) Location of strike
Ans:

47. In hemophilia, the drug administered before a surgical procedure is
a) Vitamin K
b) Aspirin
c) Epsilon caproic acid
d) Chloral hydrate
Ans; c) Epsilon caproic acid

AIPGE 09 MDS Anatomy

2009-12-02T12:57:00.001-08:00

Anatomy

27. Which is not a branch of cavernous part of internal carotid artery?
a) Cavernous branch
b) Inferior hypophyseal
c) Meningeal artery
d) Ophthalmic artery
Ans: d) Ophthalmic artery ooooooooo

28. Which of the following supplies capsule of TMJ
a) Facial nerve
b) Maxillary nerve
c) Auriculotemporal nerve
d) Mandibular nerve
Ans: c) Auriculotemporal nerveoooooooooo

29. Regarding Golgi tendon organ true is
a) Senses dynamic length of muscle
b) Involved in reciprocal innervation
c) Alpha-motor neuron stimulation
d) Senses muscle tension
Ans: d) Senses muscle tension ooooooooo

30. Not a tributary of cavernous sinus
a) Superficial middle cerebral vein
b) Deep petrosal sinus
c) Inferior petrosal sinus
d) Superior petrosal sinus
Ans: a) Superficial middle cerebral vein

31. Sensory branch of mandibular nerve is
a) Mylohyoid
b) Lingual
c) Long buccal
d) Buccal nerve
Ans: d) Long buccal nerve

32. Motor supply of tongue is by
a) Hypoglossal
b) Glossopharyngeal
c) Vagus
d) Facial
Ans: a) Hypoglossal

33. What is the type of joints between ossicles of ear
a) Fibrous joint
b) Primary cartilaginous
c) Secondary cartilaginous
d) Synovial joint
Ans: d) Synovial joint

34. All r composite muscle except
a) Pectineus
b) Rectus femris
c) Adductor magnus
d) Biceps femoris
Ans: b) Rectus femris

35. When does TMJ start developing in utero
a) 2nd week
b) 10th week
c) 20th week
d) 29 week
Ans: b)10th week

36. Premature synostis of coronal suture along with basal sutures is seen in
a) Oxycephaly
b) b\Brachycephaly
c) Trigonocephaly
d) Scandamocephaly
Ans: a) Oxycephaly

37. Not a digastric muscle
a) Occipitofrontalis
b) Sternocleidomastoid
c)
d)
Ans: b) Sternocleidomastoid

AIPGE 09 MDS Biochemistry

2009-12-02T12:53:00.000-08:00

Biochemistry

18. True about denaturation of proteins are all except:
a) Unfolding occurs
b) Disruption of secondary structure occurs
c) Sequence of amino acids remain the same
d) Biological activity is retained
Ans: d) Biological activity is retained ooooooooo

19. Insulin causes lipogenesis by all except:
a) Increasing acetyl-CoA carboxylase activity
b) Increases the trAnsport of glucose into the cells
c) Inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase
d) Decreases intracellular cAMP level
Ans: c) Inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase

20. True about G protein coupled receptors is:
a) G proteins bind to hormones on the cell surface
b) All the three subunits alpha, beta and gamma should bind each other G protein to act
c) G proteins act as inhibitory and excitatory because of difference in alpha subunit
d) G protein is bound to GTP in resting state
Ans: c) G proteins act as inhibitory and excitatory because of difference in alpha subunit ooooooo

21. Thiamine deficiency causes decreased energy production because
a) It is required for the process of transamination
b) It is co-factor in oxidative reduction
c) It is co-enzyme for transketolase in pentose phosphate pathway
d) It is co-enzyme for pyruvate dehydrogenase
Ans: d) It is co-enzyme for pyruvate dehydrogenase

22. All are true about glutathione except:
a) It is a tripeptide
b) It converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin
c) It conjugates xenobiotics
d) It scavenges free radicals and superoxide ions
Ans: b) It converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin oooooo

23. In molecular cloning, Blue-white screening is used for:
a) To screen for recombinant vectors
b) To detect gene mutations
c) To identify desired chromosomal DNA insert in plasmid vectors
d) To detect host DNA in situ
Ans: c) To identify desired chromosomal DNA insert in plasmid vectors

24. Steroid hormone receptors have attachment site for all except:
a) Steroid hormone
b) Transcription repressors
c) Hormone responsive element
d) Transcription activators
Ans: b) Transcription repressors

25. Why fetal cells continue to divide but terminally differentiated adult do not divide
a) There are many cyclin inhibitors which prevent cell to enter into S phase in adult
b) Phosphatase absent in fetal cells
c) Proteinase is absent in fetus
d) Absence of CD kinase
Ans:

26. All are true about glutathione except:
a) It is a tripeptide
b) It converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin
c) It conjugates xenobiotics
d) It scavenges free radicals and superoxide ions
Ans: It converts methhemoglobin to hemoglobin

AIPGE 09 MDS Pharmacology

2009-12-02T12:52:00.000-08:00

Pharmacology

1. First drug to be used in absent seizures:
a) Phenytoin
b) Benzodiazepines
c) Valproate
d) Carbamazepine
Ans: c)Valproate

2. Loading dose depends on:
a) Volume of distribution
b) Clearance
c) Rate of administration
d) Half life
Ans: a)Volume of distribution

3. Drug not used in H. pylori:
a) Metronidazole
b) Omeprezole
c) Mosapride
d) Amoxicillin
Ans: c- Mosapride

4. Drug not used in H pylori
a) Metronidazole
b) Omeprazole
c) Oxytetracycline
d) Bismuth subcitrate
Ans:

5. Long acting beta-2 agonist?
a) Albuterol
b) Salmetarol
c) Pirlbuterol
d) Orciprenaline
Ans: b) Salmetarol

6. Benzodiazepine antagonist ?
a) Flumazenil
b) Naloxone
c) Furazolidone
d) Naltrexone
Ans: a) Flumazenil

7. Cross resistance of isoniazid is seen with:
a) Rifampicin
b) Ethionamide
c) Cycloserine
d) Ethambutol
Ans: b) Ethionamide

8. Which drug is not acetylated?
a) INH
b) Dapsone
c) Hydralazine
d) Metoclopropamide
Ans: d) Metoclopropamide

9.. Which is a prodrug?
a) Enalapril
b) Clonidine
c) Salmeterol
d) Acetazolamide
Ans: a) Enalapril

10.. Which is not a 2nd generation antihistaminic?
a) Loratidine
b) Acrivastatine
c) Cyclizine
d) ……….
Ans: c) Cyclizine

11. Atypical antipsychotic are all except:
a) Olanzepine
b) Clozapine
c) Risperidone
d) Thioridazone
Ans: d) Thioridazone

12. Most common drug causing dry mouth in elderly
a) antihistamines
b) Tranquilizers
c) OCP
d) Antipsychotics
Ans: a) antihistamines

13.Fenastride in prostate hyperplasia.....
a) Alpha blockade
b) 5 alpha hydroxyl inhibition
c) Alpha 1 reductase inhibitor
d) ……
Ans: b) 5 alpha hydroxyl inhibition

14.Nitrous oxide acts as analgesic by
a) Non specific CNS depression
b) Specific action on Trigeminal ganglion
c) Blocking trAnsmission
d) Block dopamine
Ans:

15. Most important factor for calculating dose of NSAIDs in children is
a) Age of child
b) Body weight of child
c) Flavor of salt
d) Extent of pain
Ans: b) Body weight of child

16. In behavior modification, what is the most common route for premedication?
a) Oral
b) Intramuscular
c) Subdermal
d) Intravenous
Ans:a) Oral

17 Most common route for conscious sedation?
a) Intravenous
b) Intradermal
c) Sub mucosal
d) Subdermal
Ans:

2009-11-18T11:26:00.001-08:00

AIIMS Nov 2007 Test Paper

ANATOMY
1. Which one of the following is a junction of frontal, parietal, temporal & greater wing of sphenoid bone?
A. Pterion
B. Lambda
C. Vertex
D. Inion.
1. Answer is: A- Pterion.
(Ref: B.D.Chaurasia- 3rd Vol- 3rd Ed/ pg 7). Repeat AIPG-06.
2. A non-synovial joint with dense connective tissue between two bony surfaces is termed as:
A. Synchondrosis
B. Syndesmosis
C. Symphysis
D. Suture.
2. Answer is: D- Suture.
(Ref: Gray’s Anatomy- 39th Ed/ pg 103).
PHYSIOLOGY
3. Lysis of fibrin is brought about by:
A. Plasmin
B. Hyaluronidase
C. Collagenase
D. Coagulase
3. Answer is: A- Plasmin.
(Ref. K.D. Tripathi-5th Ed/ Pg 569)
4. Normal hemoglobin in adults is designated as:
A. Hb H
B. Hb S
C. Hb A
D. Hb F
4. Answer is: C- Hb A.
(Ref: Ganong 18th Ed / 497)
5. Which one of the following is true after exercise?
A. Cerebral blood flow increases if there is an increase in systolic blood pressure.
B. Blood flow to muscle increases in 30 seconds.
C. Body temperature increases.
D. Lymphatic flow to the muscle decreases.
5. Answer is: C- Body temperature increases.
(Ref: Ganong 18th Ed / 588-90)
6. Which one of the following statements is true when a normal person lies down?
A. The heart rate settles above that of normal.
B. There is an immediate increase in the venous return.
C. Cerebral blood flow increases.
D. Blood flow to apex of the lung decreases.
6. Answer is: B- There is an immediate increase in the venous return.
(Ref: Ganong 18th / 587)

7. A complex factor mucopolysaccharide present in lung and liver that also prevents coagulation of blood is:
A. Heparin.
B. Plasmin
C. Acetylsalicylic acid.
D. Histamine.
7. Answer is: A- Heparin.
(Ref: K.D. Tripathi 5th / 561)
8. About Nitric oxide all of the following is true except:
A. It causes penile erection.
B. It acts via c-AMP.
C. It decreases the vasomotor tone.
D. It is present in cigarette smoke.
8. Answer is: B-It acts via cyclic-AMP.
(Ref: Harper 24th Ed / 699. KDT 5th Ed / 489)
BIOCHEMISTRY
9. Poly Unsaturated Fatty Acids are present in all of the following except:
A. Mustard oil
B. Corn oil
C. Ground nut oil.
D. Fish oil.
9. Answer is: A-Mustard Oil.
(Ref: Park 16th / Page 407)
10. Iron is present in all of the following except:
A. Myoglobin.
B. Catalase.
C. Cytochrome.
D. Pyruvate kinase.
10. Answer is: D- Pyruvate kinase
(Ref: Park -11th Ed /Pg 449) Repeat AIPG-06
11. Enzyme that regulates the conversion of ethanol to acetaldehyde is:
A. Alcohol dehydrogenase.
B. Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase.
C. Catalase.
D. Xanthene oxidase.
11. Answer is: A- Alcohol dehydrogenase.
(Ref. K.D.T. 5th / 351)
12. Which of the following enzyme at a pH of 8.6 has a function in bone mineralization and hydrolysis of phosphoric esters?
A. Acid phosphatase.
B. Alkaline phosphatase.
C. Collagenase.
D. Hyaluronidase.
12. Answer is: B- Alkaline phosphatase.
(Ref. Harper 24th Ed / Page 680)
13. Amino acid residue used in detection of strength of Collagen:
A. Proline
B. Hydroxyproline
C. Glycine
D. Hydroxyglycine.
13. Answer is: B- Hydroxyproline.
(Ref: Harper 24th / 669)
DENTAL MATERIALS
14. The angle between adhesive & adherent is zero degree. This indicates:
A. Rough surface between adhesive & adherent.
B. Presence of irregularities between the adherent surfaces.
C. Complete wetting of the surfaces.
D. Molecules of adhesive & adherent are at a tangent to each other.
14. Answer is: C- Complete wetting of surfaces
(Ref: Phillips-11th Ed/Pg 37, Phillips-10th Ed/Pg 28) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
15. Which of the following is true regarding lathe cut silver alloy?
A. Has low creep.
B. Requires least amount of mercury.
C. Has tensile strength, both at 15 mins & 7 days comparable to high copper Unicompositional alloys.
D. Achieves lowest compressive strength at 1 hour.
15. Answer is: D- Achieves lowest compressive strength at 1 hour.
(Ref: Craig, Restorative dental materials-11th Ed/Pg 295-97) Repeat AIPG-06.
16. Which of the following is true regarding corrosion of Amalgam restoration?
A. It can extend upto a depth of 100-500 microns.
B. Decreases if tin content of alloy decreases.
C. Is promoted by gamma phase of alloy particles.
D. Is resisted most by cooper-tin phase in high copper amalgam.
16. Answer is: A- It can extend upto a depth of 100-500 microns.
(Ref: Craig-10th Ed/Pg 222; Sturdevant 4th/ Pg 154) Repeat AIPG-06.
17. Over-trituration of silver & mercury causes:
A. Reduction in contraction.
B. Increases strength in lathe cut but reduces strength in spherical alloy.
C. Gives a dull & crumbly amalgam mix.
D. Decreases the creep.
17. Answer is: B- Increases the strength of lathe-cut alloy but reduces the strength of spherical alloy amalgam.
(Ref: Craig 10th/226, 227) Repeat AIPG-06
18. Poisson’s ratio is:
A. Lateral strain by axial strain within elastic limit.
B. Equal to flexural strength.
C. Is more in amalgam.
D. Is low for gold alloy.
18. Answer is: A- Lateral strain by axial strain within elastic limit.
(Ref. Craig 10th Ed / 66, Skinner 11th Ed / 85)
19. Strain is:
A. New length upon original length after a load is applied.
B. Original length upon new length after a load is applied.
C. Force applied to change the length.
D. Difference between the two lengths upon original length.
19. Answer is: D- Difference between the two lengths upon original length.
(Ref: Skinner 11th / 73 & 74; Craig 10th / 66)
MICROBIOLOGY
20. Most commonly used selective medium for Streptococcus mutans is:
A. MacConkey’s medium.
B. Mitis-Salivarius-Bacitracin agar.
C. Nutrient agar.
D. Tellurite medium
20. Answer is: B- Mitis salivarius bacitracin agar.
(Ref: Soben Peter 2nd / 375) Repeat AIPG-06
PATHOLOGY
21. All of the following is true about Cerebral edema except:
A. Can result in herniation of the brain from foramen magnum.
B. Results from increased lymphatic drainage.
C. Results in an increase in intracranial pressure.
D. Can result from an increase in plasma protein concentration.
21. Answer is: B- Results from increased lymphatic drainage.
(Ref: Kumar-Cotran-Robbin’s-7th Ed/ Pg 811)
22. Apoptosis is suggestive of:
A. Coagulative necrosis.
B. Liquefactive degeneration.
C. Neoangiogenesis.
D. Epithelial dysplasia.
22. Answer is: B- Liquefactive degeneration.
(Ref: Kumar-Cotran-Robbin’s-7th Ed/ Pg 811) Repeat AIPG-06.
PHARMACOLOGY
23. Long term use of Aspirin causes:
A. Decreased platelet adhesion.
B. Decrease in fibrinogen formation.
C. Hypoprothrombinemia.
D. None of the above.
23. Answer is: C- Hypoprothrombinemia.
(Ref: K.D.T. 5th / 172 &159)
24. Which of the following is true about Benzodiazepines?
A. In higher quantities, it is relatively safer than other hypnotics.
B. Alters the sleep pattern to a great extent.
C. Stimulates hepatic metabolic enzymes.
D. All have metabolically active substrates.
24. Answer is: A- In Higher quantities, it is relatively safer than other hypnotics.
(Ref: K.D.T. 5th / 361)
25. I.V. Diazepam in a patient on the dental chair can cause:
A. Tinel’s sign.
B. Verill’s sign.
C. Bell’s sign.
D. Corman’s sign
25. Answer is: B- Verill’s sign
(Ref. Neelima Malik 1st Ed. / 650) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06
26. Drug that can result in hyperglycemia is:
A. Beta blockers.
B. ACE inhibitors.
C. Glucocorticoids.
D. NSAIDs.
26. Answer is: C-Glucocorticoids.
(Ref: KDT 5th Ed / Pg 256)
DENTAL HISTOLOGY
27. Type of Collagen found in principle fibres is:
A. Type-I.
B. Type-II.
C. Type-III.
D. Type-IV.
27. Answer is: A. Type I
(Ref: Carranza -9th Ed/Pg 37)
GENERAL MEDICINE
28. All of the following lead to severe adverse effects except:
A. Death.
B. Diabetes.
C. Prolonged hospitalization.
D. Immobility.
28. Answer is: B- Diabetes.
(Ref: Still searching….)

29. One of the following can be used in the management of a hemophilic patient:
A. Ascorbic acid.
B. Tranexamic acid.
C. Ascorbic acid.
D. Palmitoic acid.
29. Answer is: B- Tranexamic acid
(Ref. Neelima Malik 1st Ed. / 681) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
P.S.M & COMMUNITY DENTISTRY
30. Regarding Case control, all of the following are true except:
A. Risk factors can be identified.
B. It can be used in the study of rare diseases.
C. It measures incidence.
D. It requires few subjects.
30. Answer is: C- It measures incidence
(Park- 18th / 68 table 13) Repeat AIPG-06.
31. Break point chlorination indicates:
A. Start of chlorination process.
B. End of chlorination process.
C. Point where free residual chlorine starts appearing.
D. Point after partial saturation of water with chlorine.
31. Answer is: C- Point where free residual chlorine starts appearing.
(Ref: Soben P- 2nd / 778) Repeat AIPG-06.
32. Square root of pq/n indicates:
A. Standard error of mean.
B. Standard error of difference in means.
C. Standard error of proportion.
D. Standard error of difference in proportions.
32. Answer is: C- Standard error of proportions.
(Ref: Park-18th /649) Repeat AIPG-06.
33. True regarding Randomized Controlled Trial:
A. Baseline characteristics of intervention and control groups should be similar.
B. Investigator’s bias is minimized by double blinding.
C. Help ensure that study subjects are a part of the general population.
D. Reduce selection bias in allocation of treatment.
33. Answer is: D- Reduce selection bias in allocation to treatment
(Ref: Park 18th / 76) Repeat AIPG-06.
34. All of the following is true regarding informed consent except:
A. Patient must be informed about alternative procedures & their benefits.
B. Risk factors involved in the procedure must be explained.
C. Benefits of treatment likely to result must be highlighted.
D. Concealment of procedures which are beneficial may be done knowingly.
34. Answer is: D- Concealment of procedures which are beneficial may be done knowingly.
(Ref: Soben Peter 3rd / 773)
35. Good clinical practice is not essential in:
A. Preclinical studies.
B. Phase-I studies.
C. Phase-II studies.
D. Phase-IV studies.
35. Answer is: A- Preclinical studies.
36. Number of teeth used in modified PHP index is:
A. 6
B. 12
C. 18
D. 24
36. Answer is: A- 6.
(Ref: Soben Peter 3rd / 135-36)
ORAL PATHOLOGY
37. Pemphigus vulgaris is characterised by:
A. Acanthosis.
B. Auspitz sign
C. Acantholysis.
D. Wickham’s striae.
37. Answer is: C- Acantholysis
(Ref: Shafer 5th /1128) Repeat AIPG-06.
38. One of the following is an oral precancerous lesion:
A. Oral hairy leukoplakia.
B. Hairy B-cell leukemia.
C. White sponge nevus.
D. Speckled leukoplakia.
38. Answer is: D- Speckled leukoplakia
(Ref: Burket- 10th / Pg 102) Repeat AIPG-06.
39. Important organism causing dentinal caries is:
A. Streptococcus mutans.
B. Streptococcus viridans.
C. Borrelia vincenti.
D. Actinomyces actinobacillus.
39. Answer is: A- Streptococcus mutans.
(Ref: Shafer 5th /575) Repeat AIPG-06.
40. In taurodontism affected teeth exhibit:
A. Elongated large pulp chambers, short roots
B. Elongated small pulp chambers, short roots.
C. Elongated large pulp chambers, large roots.
D. Elongated small pulp chambers, large roots.
40. Answer is: A- Elongated large pulp chambers and short roots.
(Ref: Shafer 5th / 60) Repeat AIPG-06.
41. Dens in dente is most commonly seen in:
A. Premolars
B. Lateral incisors.
C. Paramolars
D. Maxillary canines.
41. Answer is: B- Lateral incisors
(Ref: Shafer 5th / 57) Repeat AIPG-06.
42. A tumor of oral cavity represented as T3N2M0 is classified as:
A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III
D. Stage IV
42. Answer is: D- Stage IV
(Ref: Harrison-16th /505)
43. Blanching of the oral mucosa is associated with:
A. Scleroderma.
B. Riboflavin deficiency
C. Oral sub mucous fibrosis.
D. Thiamine deficiency.

43. Answer is: C- Oral submucous fibrosis.
(Ref. Shafer’s 5th Ed/ 136, 4th Ed/ 109)
44. Rigidity of the oral mucosa is seen with:
A. Oral sub mucous fibrosis.
B. Cicatricial pemphigoid.
C. Healed lesions of aphthous stomatitis.
D. None of the above.
44. Answer is: A- Oral submucous fibrosis.
(Ref: Above answer & Pathology of head and neck tumors- Leon Barnes.)
45. Bilateral spongy folded mucosa is seen in:
A. Candidiasis.
B. White sponge nevus.
C. Aspirin burns.
D. Leukoplakia.
45. Answer is: B- White sponge nevus
(Ref: Shafer/ 4th- 825)
46. White patch on the buccal mucosa which disappears on stretching is:
A. Leukoplakia.
B. White sponge nevus.
C. Scleroderma.
D. Leucoedema.
46. Answer is: D- Leucoedema.
(Ref: Burket/ 10th- 86)

47. Most common site of occurrence of lateral periodontal cyst is:
A. Between maxillary premolars.
B. Mandibular third molar area.
C. Maxillary tuberosity area.
D. Between mandibular cuspid & premolar.
47. Answer is: D- Between the mandibular cuspid and first premolar.
(Ref: Shafer 5th / 372) Repeat AIPG-06.
48. In leukemic patient bleeding does not stop because of:
A. Decreased platelet count.
B. Increased WBC count.
C. Increased calcium levels.
D. Decrease in coagulation factor levels.
48. Answer is: A- Decreased platelet count.
(Ref: Carranza -9th Ed/ Pg 216) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
49. Increased alkaline phosphatase levels are seen with:
A. Paget’s disease.
B. Hypophosphatasia.
C. Cherubism.
D. Hyperparathyroidism.
49. Answer is: A- Paget’s disease.
(Ref: Shafer/ 5th -1001)
50. In lead poisoning gingival discoloration presents as:
A. Blue-black line.
B. Yellow line.
C. Grayish black line.
D. Steel gray line.
50. Answer is: A- Blue black/ C- Grayish black line/ D- Steel gray
(Ref: Carranza 9th /223; Shafer 5th Ed/774; Burket 8th/ 302)

51. Dilaceration occurs due to:
A. Trauma to the tooth germ during root development.
B. Abnormal displacement of the tooth germ during root development.
C. Abnormal displacement of enamel epithelium during tooth development.
D. Abnormal displacement of ameloblasts during tooth development.
51. Answer is: A- Trauma to the tooth germ during root development.
(Ref: Shafer -5th Ed/ 56) Repeat AIPG-06
52. Which of the following is true about Xerostomia?
A. pH of saliva increases.
B. pH of saliva decreases.
C. pH of saliva increases in morning & decreases in evening.
D. pH of saliva remains unchanged.
52. Answer is: B- pH of saliva decreases. (Most probably)
(Ref: Shafer 4th/33-34, Burket-10th /222).
53. Diagnosis of Periapical Cemental Dysplasia is done by:
A. Vitality tests.
B. Radiographs.
C. Percussion.
D. Examination of the lamina dura.
53. Answer is: A- Vitality tests (Most probably)
(Ref: White and Pharoah -5th / 495)

54. Toluidene blue stain is used to distinguish between:
A. Pemphigus & lichen planus.
B. Leukoplakia & lichen planus.
C. Detection of malignant transformation.
D. Candidiasis & leukoplakia.
54. Answer is: C- Detection of malignant transformation.
(Ref: Burket- 10th / 106)

ORAL RADIOLOGY
55. Radiographically, driven snow appearance is seen with:
A. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumour
B. Calcifying odontogenic cyst
C. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumour
D. Keratocyst
55. Answer is: C- Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumour
(Ref: Shafers 5th / 392) Repeat AIPG-06.
56. Disadvantage of a grid is:
A. Increases exposure time.
B. Decreases clarity.
C. Causes blurring of image.
D. More skin dose.
56. Answer is: A- Increases exposure time.
(Ref: White and Pharoah -5th / 85) AIIMS-NOV-05
57. Consistent radiographs are maintained by:
A. Constant mA & kVp.
B. Automatic processing.
C. Using long cone technique
D. Fixed processing time.
57. Answer is: B- Automated processing. (My guess)
(Ref: White & Pharoah 5th / 103)
58. Contrast on a radiograph is:
A. Dark areas on a radiograph.
B. Range of densities on a radiograph.
C. Overall darkening of the radiograph.
D. Light areas on the radiographs.
58. Answer is: B- Range of densities on a radiograph.
(Ref: White & Pharoah -5th / 392)
59. True about parallax technique:
A. Increases image clarity
B. Decreases distortion of the image.
C. Gives relative image of object.
D. Decreases image clarity.
59. Answer is: D- Decreases image clarity.
(Ref: White & Pharoah- 5th / 83) AIIMS-NOV-05
ORAL SURGERY
60. Most common reason for the removal of impacted mandibular third molars is:
A. Referred pain.
B. Recurrent pericoronitis.
C. Chronic periodontal disease.
D. Orthodontic treatment.
60. Answer is: B- Recurrent Pericoronitis.
(Ref: Shafer- 5th/86) Repeat AIPG-06.
61. Which of the following is the correct reason for facial nerve injury during forcep extraction?
A. The mastoid process is absent at birth
B. The parotid glands is in developing stage
C. The beak of the forceps engages the main trunk of facial nerve
D. The sublingual hematoma during delivery causes neuropraxia.
61. Answer is: A- The mastoid process is absent at birth
(Ref: Dutta- Obs and Gynec.- 5th Ed/ 591) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
62. Incidence of osteoradionecrosis is increased in following cases:
A. Extraction following radiotherapy.
B. Leukaemic patients.
C. Patients on hyperbaric oxygen therapy.
D. Xerostomia
62. Answer is: A- Extraction following radiotherapy.
(Ref. Neelima Malik :1st Ed/616-621)
63. Syncope results from:
A. Cerebral edema
B. Cerebral hyperemia
C. Cerebral hypoxia
D. Cerebral degeneration
63. Answer is: C- Cerebral hypoxia
(Ref. Davidson’s- 18th Ed. / 225, Ref. Monheims- 7th Ed. / 238) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
PERIODONTOLOGY
64. A papilla preservation flap is indicated in:
A. Horizontal bone loss in upper anterior region.
B. Infrabony defects.
C. Crater type bony defect.
D. One walled defect.
64. Answer is: A- Horizontal bone loss in upper anterior region.
(Ref: Carranza 9th/ 723) Repeat AIPG-06.
65. A procedure done to eliminate periodontal pocket & increase the width of attached gingiva is termed as:
A. Laterally displaced flap.
B. Apically displaced flap.
C. Papilla preservation flap.
D. Modified Widman flap.
65. Answer is: B- Apically displaced flap.
(Ref: Above question & chart)

66. Role of barrier membrane in GTR is:
A. To help overall healing.
B. Prevention of epithelial migration.
C. Arrest of bleeding.
D. Prevent the infection from reaching the underlying tissues.
66. Answer is: B- Prevention of epithelial migration
(Ref: Carranza 9th/809) Repeat AIPG-06
67. Biofilm found on tooth surface is termed as:
A. Enamel.
B. Dental plaque.
C. Saliva.
D. Dentinal caries.
67. Answer is: B- Dental Plaque
(Ref: Carranza 9th/97) Repeat AIPG-06.
68. Periodontitis that does not resolve with treatment is termed as:
A. Aggressive periodontitis.
B. Chronic periodontitis.
C. Refractory periodontitis.
D. Juvenille periodontitis.
68. Answer is: C- Refractory periodontitis.
(Ref: Carranza 10th/ 243)
69. Peripheral buttressing bone formation effect is termed as:
A. Ledges.
B. Craters.
C. Hemiseptum.
D. Lipping.
69. Answer is: D- Lipping.
(Ref: Carranza 9th/ Pg 362,365-66)
PROSTHODONTICS
70. Modification in Kennedy’s classification is:
A. Number of spaces present anterior to the remaining teeth.
B. Number of spaces present after the basic classification.
C. Edentulous spaces posterior to all the teeth.
D. Additional spaces in class-IV.
70. Answer is: B- Number of spaces present after the basic classification.
(Ref. McCracken’s removable partial denture: 11th Ed/pg 22)
71. One of the following is true about a pier abutment:
A. Presence of edentulous space mesial to the abutment tooth.
B. Presence of edentulous space distal to the abutment tooth.
C. Presence of edentulous spaces on both sides of the abutment tooth.
D. A periodontally weak abutment.
71. Answer is: C- Presence of edentulous spaces on both sides of the abutment tooth.
(Ref. Nallaswamy 1st Ed/ pg 550)
72. The correct placement of an indirect retainer is:
A. Near the fulcrum line.
B. Away from the fulcrum line.
C. Near the direct retainer.
D. Near the edentulous area.
72. Answer is: B- Away from the fulcrum line.
(Ref. McCracken’s: 11th Ed/Pg 156)
73. Lingual bar is: (size & shape)
A. 6 gauge, pear shaped.
B. 4 gauge, pear shaped.
C. 6 gauge, half pear shaped.
D. 4 gauge, half pear shaped.
73. Answer is: C- 6 gauge, half pear shaped.
(Ref. McCracken’s: 11th Ed/Pg 39)
74. Correct indication for a lingual plate is:
A. When the lingual sulcus is deep.
B. When the ridge is not strong enough to support the teeth.
C. When more number of anterior teeth are involved.
D. Any of the above can be an indication.
74. Answer is: C- When more number of anterior teeth are involved.
(Ref. McCracken’s: 11th Ed/Pg 42, 61)
75. Disadvantage of a flexible major connector is:
A. Causes other components of the RPD to become more effective.
B. Causes overload & periodontal destruction of the abutment teeth.
C. Decreased retention.
D. -----------
75. Answer is: B- Causes overload & periodontal destruction of the abutment teeth.
(Ref. McCracken’s: 11th Ed/Pg 35-36)
OPERATIVE DENTISTRY
76. Permeability of dentin does not depend upon:
A. Smear layer.
B. Diffusion co-efficient of fluid.
C. Convection of fluid
D. Length of dentinal tubules.
76. Answer is: Still searching
77. Incipient or recurrent caries can be detected before they are visible on a radiograph by:
A. Visible light.
B. Ultrasonic light.
C. Fibre optic trans-illumination.
D. Digital Fibre optic trans-illumination.
77. Answer is: D- Digital Fibre optic trans-illumination.
(Ref. Damle 3rd Ed/ 51, Internet references) Repeat AIPG-06.

78. Resistance form is that shape of a cavity which:
A. Prevents displacement of restoration.
B. Permits restoration to withstand occlusal forces.
C. Prevents displacement of restoration & Permits restoration to withstand occlusal forces.
D. Allows for adequate instrumentation.
78. Answer is: B- Permits restoration to withstand occlusal forces.
(Ref. Sturdevant’s: 4th Ed/pg 290)
79. Pin used in pin retained restoration of an endodontically treated tooth is:
A. Cemented.
B. Friction locked.
C. Self threaded.
D. Any of the above.
79. Answer is: A- Cemented pin
(Ref: Sturdevant- 2nd Ed. / Page. 373.) Repeat AIPG-06.
ENDODONTICS
80. Sterilization of Gutta percha points is done by:
A. Hot salt sterilizer
B. Autoclaving
C. Chemical solutions
D. Dry heat.
80. Answer is: C- Chemical solutions.
(Ref: Grossman-11th Ed/ Pg 140) Repeat AIPG-06.
81. Difference between physical characteristics of a file & reamer is:
A. The cross-section of reamers is square and files are triangular in cross section.
B. The numbers of flutes on the blade are more in files than in reamers.
C. The reamers have more flutes in the blade.
D. Files have two superficial grooves to produce flutes in a double helix design.
81. Answer is: B- The numbers of flutes on the blade are more in files than in reamers.
(Ref. Grossman 11th Ed/ 195) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
ORTHODONTICS
82. A dentist performed restorative procedure in an 11 year old child and found that the primary molars were in various stages of exfoliation with slight anterior crowding present. His next appointment should be:
A. After three months for observation
B. After six months for recall checkup
C. After one year
D. When all the permanent teeth will erupt
82. Answer is: A- After three months for observation
(Ref: National boards series-Q. no.16, March 1980 paper) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-07.
83. Rectangular wire used in edgewise appliance is primarily meant for:
A. Correction of crown root position
B. Increasing the strength of wire
C. Correction of Arch-length Deficiency
D. Used for correction of anterior crowding
83. Answer is: A- Correction of crown root position
(Ref. Proffit- 2nd Ed/Pg 343) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
84. A buccal coil spring is used to regain space between 1st premolar & 1st molar. The most common post treatment complication is:
A. Pain
B. Gingival irritation
C. Tendency for the 1st molar to intrude
D. Tendency for the 1st premolar to rotate
84. Answer is: D- Tendency for the 1st premolar to rotate
(Ref: National boards series-Q. no.26, March 1980 paper) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
85. Arch space for the eruption of 3rd molars is created by:
A. Apposition of alveolar process
B. Resorption of posterior border of Ramus
C. Resorption of anterior border of Ramus.
D. Apposition of lower body of mandible.
85. Answer is: C- Resorption of anterior border of Ramus.
(Ref. Bhalajhi 3rd Ed/ Pg 33) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
86. ANB angle of 2? indicates:
A. A favorable relationship of maxillary alveolar base to Mandibular alveolar base
B. A favorable relationship of mandible to cranium.
C. Poor cranial growth
D. Upright incisors
86. Answer is: A- A favorable relationship of maxillary alveolar base to mandibular alveolar base.
(Ref: Bhalajhi- 3rd Ed/ 154, National boards series-Q. no.23, March 1980 paper) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
87. When a maxillary removable orthodontic appliance is first placed, the effect on patient’s speech will be:
A. Difficulty with lingual vowels for a few days.
B. Difficulty with lingual vowel for several weeks.
C. Difficulty with linguoalveolar consonants for a few days.
D. Difficulty with linguoalveolar consonants for several weeks.
87. Answer is: C- Difficulty with linguoalveolar consonants for a few days.
(Ref: National boards series-Q. no.24, March 1980 paper) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
PEDODONTICS
88. Pulse oxymetry is used for the determination of:
A. Rate of blood flow.
B. Oxygen saturation.
C. Blood volume.
D. Blood coefficient.
88. Answer is: B- Oxygen saturation
(Ref. Shobha Tandon 1st Ed/ Pg 338) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
89. A non-invasive method to measure the blood flow is:
A. Electric pulp testing.
B. Percussion.
C. Laser Doppler flowmetry.
D. Radiographic visualization.
89. Answer is: C- Laser Doppler flowmetry
(Ref. Shobha Tandon, 1st Ed/ 332) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.
90. First to advocate distal shoe in 1929:
A. Wilson.
B. William.
C. Willet.
D. Roche.
90. Answer is: C- Willet.
(Ref: AIIMS-MAY-06, Q-86)

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